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QUESTION 440
A developer is building a microservice that uses AWS Lambda to process messages from an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) standard queue. The Lambda function calls external APIs to enrich the SQS message data before loading the data into an Amazon Redshift data warehouse. The SQS queue must handle a maximum of 1,000 messages per second.
During initial testing, the Lambda function repeatedly inserted duplicate data into the Amazon Redshift table. The duplicate data led to a problem with data analysis. All duplicate messages were submitted to the queue within 1 minute of each other.
How should the developer resolve this issue?

A. Create an SQS FIFO queue. Enable message deduplication on the SQS FIFO queue.
B. Reduce the maximum Lambda concurrency that the SQS queue can invoke.
C. Use Lambda’s temporary storage to keep track of processed message identifiers
D. Configure a message group ID for every sent message. Enable message deduplication on the SQS standard queue.

Answer: A

QUESTION 441
A company has an application that uses an Amazon API Gateway API to invoke an AWS Lambda function. The application is latency sensitive.
A developer needs to configure the Lambda function to reduce the cold start time that is associated with default scaling.
What should the developer do to meet these requirements?

A. Publish a new version of the Lambda function. Configure provisioned concurrency. Set the provisioned concurrency limit to meet the company requirements.
B. Increase the Lambda function’s memory to the maximum amount. Increase the Lambda function’s reserved concurrency limit.
C. Increase the reserved concurrency of the Lambda function to a number that matches the current production load.
D. Use Service Quotas to request an increase in the Lambda function’s concurrency limit for the AWS account where the function is deployed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 442
A developer is deploying an application on Amazon EC2 instances that run in Account A. The application needs to read data from an existing Amazon Kinesis data stream in Account B.
Which actions should the developer take to provide the application with access to the stream? (Choose two.)

A. Update the instance profile role in Account A with stream read permissions.
B. Create an IAM role with stream read permissions in Account B.
C. Add a trust policy to the instance profile role and IAM role in Account B to allow the instance profile role to assume the IAM role.
D. Add a trust policy to the instance profile role and IAM role in Account B to allow reads from the stream.
E. Add a resource-based policy in Account B to allow read access from the instance profile role.

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QUESTION 340
A company uses Amazon Redshift as its data warehouse solution. The company wants to create a dashboard to view changes to the Redshift users and the queries the users perform.
Which combination of steps will meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Create an Amazon CloudWatch log group. Create an AWS CloudTrail trail that writes to the CloudWatch log group.
B. Create a new Amazon S3 bucket. Configure default audit logging on the Redshift cluster. Configure the S3 bucket as the target.
C. Configure the Redshift cluster database audit logging to include user activity logs. Configure Amazon CloudWatch as the target.
D. Create an Amazon CloudWatch dashboard that has a log widget. Configure the widget to display user details from the Redshift logs.
E. Create an AWS Lambda function that uses Amazon Athena to query the Redshift logs. Create an Amazon CloudWatch dashboard that has a custom widget type that uses the Lambda function.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Amazon Redshift audit logging allows you to capture information about the activities performed on the database, including changes to users and the queries executed. By enabling default audit logging and specifying an S3 bucket as the target, you can store the logs in a centralized location. This step ensures that user activity and database changes are captured.
Redshift’s database audit logging can include user activity logs, which track the SQL queries performed by users and the changes they make. By configuring these logs and sending them to Amazon CloudWatch, you can monitor user activity in real time, making it easier to integrate with a monitoring and alerting dashboard.
By enabling audit logging for Amazon Redshift and sending the logs to S3 and CloudWatch, you can track changes to Redshift users and queries effectively and integrate the data into a dashboard for monitoring purposes.

QUESTION 341
A company uses an organization in AWS Organizations to manage its 500 AWS accounts. The organization has all features enabled. The AWS accounts are in a single OU. The developers need to use the CostCenter tag key for all resources in the organization’s member accounts. Some teams do not use the CostCenter tag key to tag their Amazon EC2 instances.
The cloud team wrote a script that scans all EC2 instances in the organization’s member accounts. If the EC2 instances do not have a CostCenter tag key, the script will notify AWS account administrators. To avoid this notification, some developers use the CostCenter tag key with an arbitrary string in the tag value.
The cloud team needs to ensure that all EC2 instances in the organization use a CostCenter tag key with the appropriate cost center value.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Create an SCP that prevents the creation of EC2 instances without the CostCenter tag key. Create a tag policy that requires the CostCenter tag to be values from a known list of cost centers for all EC2 instances. Attach the policy to the OU. Update the script to scan the tag keys and tag values.
Modify the script to update noncompliant resources with a default approved tag value for the CostCenter tag key.
B. Create an SCP that prevents the creation of EC2 instances without the CostCenter tag key. Attach the policy to the OU. Update the script to scan the tag keys and tag values and notify the administrators when the tag values are not valid.
C. Create an SCP that prevents the creation of EC2 instances without the CostCenter tag key. Attach the policy to the OU. Create an IAM permission boundary in the organization’s member accounts that restricts the CostCenter tag values to a list of valid cost centers.
D. Create a tag policy that requires the CostCenter tag to be values from a known list of cost centers for all EC2 instances. Attach the policy to the OU.
Configure an AWS Lambda function that adds an empty CostCenter tag key to an EC2 instance. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that matches events to the RunInstances API action with the Lambda function as the target.

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QUESTION 316
Which AWS service or resource can provide discounts on some AWS service costs in exchange for a spending commitment?

A. Amazon Detective
B. AWS Pricing Calculator
C. Savings Plans
D. Basic Support

Answer: C
Explanation:
Savings Plans offer significant savings over On-Demand Instances, in exchange for a commitment to use a specific amount of compute power for a one or three-year period.
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/whitepapers/latest/cost-optimization-reservation-models/savings-plans.html

QUESTION 317
Which of the following are pillars of the AWS Well-Architected Framework? (Choose two.)

A. High availability
B. Performance efficiency
C. Cost optimization
D. Going global in minutes
E. Continuous development

Answer: B
Explanation:
Performance efficiency and Cost optimization are the pillars of the Framework from the choose.

QUESTION 318
A company wants to use Amazon EC2 instances to provide a static website to users all over the world. The company needs to minimize latency for the users.
Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Use EC2 instances in multiple edge locations.
B. Use EC2 instances in the same Availability Zone but in different AWS Regions.
C. Use Amazon CloudFront with the EC2 instances configured as the source.
D. Use EC2 instances in the same Availability Zone but in different AWS accounts.

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QUESTION 105
A company has a data warehouse that contains a table that is named Sales. The company stores the table in Amazon Redshift. The table includes a column that is named city_name. The company wants to query the table to find all rows that have a city_name that starts with “San” or “El”.
Which SQL query will meet this requirement?

A. Select * from Sales where city_name ~ ‘$(San|El)*’;
B. Select * from Sales where city_name ~ ‘^(San|El)*’;
C. Select * from Sales where city_name ~’$(San&El)*’;
D. Select * from Sales where city_name ~ ‘^(San&El)*’;

Answer: B
Explanation:
This query uses a regular expression pattern with the ~ operator. The caret ^ at the beginning of the pattern indicates that the match must start at the beginning of the string. (San|El) matches either “San” or “El”, and * means zero or more of the preceding element. So this query will return all rows where city_name starts with either “San” or “El”.

QUESTION 106
A company needs to send customer call data from its on-premises PostgreSQL database to AWS to generate near real-time insights. The solution must capture and load updates from operational data stores that run in the PostgreSQL database. The data changes continuously.
A data engineer configures an AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) ongoing replication task. The task reads changes in near real time from the PostgreSQL source database transaction logs for each table. The task then sends the data to an Amazon Redshift cluster for processing.
The data engineer discovers latency issues during the change data capture (CDC) of the task. The data engineer thinks that the PostgreSQL source database is causing the high latency.
Which solution will confirm that the PostgreSQL database is the source of the high latency?

A. Use Amazon CloudWatch to monitor the DMS task. Examine the CDCIncomingChanges metric to identify delays in the CDC from the source database.
B. Verify that logical replication of the source database is configured in the postgresql.conf configuration file.
C. Enable Amazon CloudWatch Logs for the DMS endpoint of the source database. Check for error messages.
D. Use Amazon CloudWatch to monitor the DMS task. Examine the CDCLatencySource metric to identify delays in the CDC from the source database.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/dms/latest/userguide/CHAP_Troubleshooting_Latency.html
A high CDCLatencySource metric indicates that the process of capturing changes from the source is delayed.

QUESTION 107
A lab uses IoT sensors to monitor humidity, temperature, and pressure for a project. The sensors send 100 KB of data every 10 seconds. A downstream process will read the data from an Amazon S3 bucket every 30 seconds.
Which solution will deliver the data to the S3 bucket with the LEAST latency?

A. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to deliver the data to the S3 bucket. Use the default buffer interval for Kinesis Data Firehose.
B. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to deliver the data to the S3 bucket. Configure the stream to use 5 provisioned shards.
C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and call the Kinesis Client Library to deliver the data to the S3 bucket. Use a 5 second buffer interval from an application.
D. Use Amazon Managed Service for Apache Flink (previously known as Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics) and Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to deliver the data to the S3 bucket. Use a 5 second buffer interval for Kinesis Data Firehose.

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Question: 1
Consider the scenario where the server’s name indication (SNI) does not match either the common name (CN) or any of the subject alternative names (SAN) in the server certificate.
Which action will FortiGate take when using the default settings for SSL certificate inspection?
A. FortiGate uses the SNI from the user’s web browser.
B. FortiGate closes the connection because this represents an invalid SSL/TLS configuration.
C. FortiGate uses the first entry listed in the SAN field in the server certificate.
D. FortiGate uses the CN information from the Subject field in the server certificate.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When FortiGate performs SSL certificate inspection with default settings, it checks if the Server Name Indication (SNI) matches either the Common Name (CN) or any Subject Alternative Name (SAN) in the server certificate. If there is no match, FortiGate does not block the connection; instead, it uses the CN value from the certificate’s subject field to continue web filtering and categorization.
This behavior is described in the official Fortinet 7.6.4 Administration Guide:
“Check the SNI in the hello message with the CN or SAN field in the returned server certificate: Enable: If it is mismatched, use the CN in the server certificate.” This is the default (Enable) mode, which differs from the Strict mode that would block the mismatched connection.
By default, this policy ensures service continuity and prevents disruptions due to certificate mismatches, allowing FortiGate to log and inspect based on the CN even when the requested SNI does not match. It provides a balance between connection reliability and the accuracy of filtering by certificate identity, allowing security policies to remain functional without unnecessary blocks. This approach is recommended by Fortinet to maintain usability for end-users while still supporting granular inspection.
Reference:
FortiGate 7.6.4 Administration Guide: Certificate Inspection SSL/SSH Inspection Profile Configuration

Question: 2
Exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit, which contains partial output from an IKE real-time debug. Which two statements about this debug output are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) is enabled in the configuration.
B. The local gateway IP address is 10.0.0.1.
C. It shows a phase 2 negotiation.
D. The initiator provided remote as its IPsec peer ID.

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QUESTION 121
An AI practitioner wants to predict the classification of flowers based on petal length, petal width, sepal length, and sepal width.
Which algorithm meets these requirements?

A. K-nearest neighbors (k-NN)
B. K-mean
C. Autoregressive Integrated Moving Average (ARIMA)
D. Linear regression

Answer: A

QUESTION 122
A company is using custom models in Amazon Bedrock for a generative AI application. The company wants to use a company managed encryption key to encrypt the model artifacts that the model customization jobs create.
Which AWS service meets these requirements?

A. AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
B. Amazon Inspector
C. Amazon Macie
D. AWS Secrets Manager

Answer: A

QUESTION 123
A company wants to use large language models (LLMs) to produce code from natural language code comments.
Which LLM feature meets these requirements?

A. Text summarization
B. Text generation
C. Text completion
D. Text classification

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QUESTION 143
A company has set up hybrid connectivity between its VPCs and its on-premises data center. The company has the on-premises.example.com subdomain configured at its DNS server in the on-premises data center. The company is using the aws.example.com subdomain for workloads that run on AWS across different VPCs and accounts. Resources in both environments can access each other by using IP addresses. The company wants workloads in the VPCs to be able to access resources on premises by using the on-premises.example.com DNS names.
Which solution will meet these requirements with MINIMUM management of resources?

A. Create an Amazon Route 53 Resolver outbound endpoint. Configure a Resolver rule that conditionally forwards DNS queries for on-premises.example.com to the on-premises DNS server. Associate the rule with the VPCs.
B. Create an Amazon Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint and a Resolver outbound endpoint. Configure a Resolver rule that conditionally forwards DNS queries for on-premises.example.com to the on-premises DNS server. Associate the rule with the VPCs.
C. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance. Install and configure BIND software to conditionally forward DNS queries for on-premises.example.com to the on-premises DNS server. Configure the EC2 instance’s IP address as a custom DNS server in each VPC.
D. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance in each VPC. Install and configure BIND software to conditionally forward DNS queries for on-premises.example.com to the on-premises DNS server. Configure the EC2 instance’s IP address as a custom DNS server in each VPC.

Answer: A
Explanation:
We need an outbound endpoint because we want to resolve it with an on-premises DNS query.

QUESTION 144
A company is in the early stage of AWS Cloud adoption. The company has an application that is running in an on-premises data center in Asia. The company needs to deploy new applications in the us-east-1 Region. The applications in the cloud need connectivity to the on-premises data center.
The company needs to set up a communication channel between AWS and the data center. The solution must improve latency, minimize the possibility of performance impact from transcontinental routing over the public internet, and encrypt data in transit.
Which solution will meet these requirements in the LEAST amount of time?

A. Create an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection with acceleration turned on. Create a virtual private gateway. Attach the Site-to-Site VPN connection to the virtual private gateway. Attach the virtual private gateway to the VPC where the applications will be deployed.
B. Create an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection with acceleration turned on. Create a transit gateway. Attach the Site-to-Site VPN connection to the transit gateway. Create a transit gateway attachment to the VPC where the applications will be deployed.
C. Create an AWS Direct Connect connection. Create a virtual private gateway. Create a public VIF and a private VIF that use the virtual private gateway. Create an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection over the public VIF.
D. Create an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection with acceleration turned off. Create a transit gateway. Attach the Site-to-Site VPN connection to the transit gateway. Create a transit gateway attachment to the VPC where the applications will be deployed.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Acceleration is only supported for Site-to-Site VPN connections that are attached to a transit gateway. Virtual private gateways do not support accelerated VPN connections.
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/vpn/latest/s2svpn/accelerated-vpn.html

QUESTION 145
A company is moving its record-keeping application to the AWS Cloud. All traffic between the company’s on-premises data center and AWS must be encrypted at all times and at every transit device during the migration.
The application will reside across multiple Availability Zones in a single AWS Region. The application will use existing 10 Gbps AWS Direct Connect dedicated connections with a MACsec capable port. A network engineer must ensure that the Direct Connect connection is secured accordingly at every transit device.
The network engineer creates a Connection Key Name and Connectivity Association Key (CKN/CAK) pair for the MACsec secret key.
Which combination of additional steps should the network engineer take to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the on-premises router with the MACsec secret key.
B. Update the connection’s MACsec encryption mode to must_encrypt. Then associate the CKN/CAK pair with the connection.
C. Update the connection’s MACsec encryption mode to should encrypt. Then associate the CKN/CAK pair with the connection.
D. Associate the CKN/CAK pair with the connection. Then update the connection’s MACsec encryption mode to must_encrypt.
E. Associate the CKN/CAK pair with the connection. Then update the connection’s MACsec encryption mode to should_encrypt.

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QUESTION 188
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company uses Azure DevOps to manage the build and release processes for applications.
You use a Git repository for applications source control.
You need to implement a pull request strategy that reduces the history volume in the master branch.
Solution: You implement a pull request strategy that uses an explicit merge.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Squash merging is a merge option that allows you to condense the Git history.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/merging-with-squash?view=azure-devops

QUESTION 189
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company uses Azure DevOps to manage the build and release processes for applications.
You use a Git repository for applications source control.
You need to implement a pull request strategy that reduces the history volume in the master branch.
Solution: You implement a pull request strategy that uses a three-way merge.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

QUESTION 190
You are developing an application. The application source has multiple branches.
You make several changes to a branch used for experimentation.
You need to update the main branch to capture the changes made to the experimentation branch and override the history of the Git repository.
Which Git option should you use?

A. Rebase
B. Fetch
C. Merge
D. Push

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QUESTION 446
You have an Azure subscription that uses Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM).
A user named User1 is eligible for the Billing administrator role.
You need to ensure that the role can only be used for a maximum of two hours.
What should you do?

A. Create a new access review.
B. Edit the role assignment settings.
C. Update the end date of the user assignment.
D. Edit the role activation settings.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-how-to-change-default-settings

QUESTION 447
You have an Azure subscription that contains a user named User1 and a storage account that hosts a blob container named blob1.
You need to grant User1 access to blob1. The solution must ensure that the access expires after six days.
What should you use?

A. a shared access signature (SAS)
B. role-based access control (RBAC)
C. a shared access policy
D. a managed identity

Answer: A

QUESTION 448
You have an Azure subscription linked to an Azure AD tenant named contoso.com. Contoso.com contains a user named User1 and an Azure web app named App1.
You plan to enable User1 to perform the following tasks:
– Configure contoso.com to use Microsoft Entra Verified ID.
– Register App1 in contoso.com.
You need to identify which roles to assign to User1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which two roles should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Authentication Policy Administrator
B. Authentication Administrator
C. Cloud App Security Administrator
D. Application Administrator
E. User Administrator

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QUESTION 596
You manage an Azure subscription that contains 100 Azure App Service web apps. Each web app is associated with an individual Application Insights instance.
You plan to remove Classic availability tests from all Application Insights instances that have this functionality configured.
You have the following PowerShell statement:
Get-AzApplicationInsightsWebTest | Where-Object { $condition }
You need to set the value of the $condition variable.
Which value should you use?

A. $_.Type -eq “ping”
B. $_.WebTestKind -eq “ping”
C. $_.WebTestKind -eq “standard”
D. $_.Type -eq “standard”

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/availability?tabs=standard#migrate-classic-url-ping-tests-to-standard-tests

QUESTION 597
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure App Service web app named WebApp1 and an Azure Functions app named Function1. WebApp1 is associated with an Application Insights instance named appinsights1.
You configure a web test and a corresponding alert for WebApp1 in appinsights1. Each alert triggers a delivery of email to your mailbox.
You need to ensure that each alert also triggers execution of Function1.
Solution: Configure an Azure Monitor Insights workbook.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure that each alert triggers the execution of Function1, you should configure an Action Group in Azure Monitor and set up an Azure Function action.

QUESTION 598
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure App Service web app named WebApp1 and an Azure Functions app named Function1. WebApp1 is associated with an Application Insights instance named appinsights1.
You configure a web test and a corresponding alert for WebApp1 in appinsights1. Each alert triggers a delivery of email to your mailbox.
You need to ensure that each alert also triggers execution of Function1.
Solution: Configure an Application Insights smart detection.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

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QUESTION 260
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You plan to deploy multiple instances of an Azure web app across several Azure regions. You need to design an access solution for the app. The solution must meet the following replication requirements:
– Support rate limiting.
– Balance requests between all instances.
– Ensure that users can access the app in the event of a regional outage.
Solution: You use Azure Front Door to provide access to the app.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Front Door meets the requirements. The Azure Web Application Firewall (WAF) rate limit rule for Azure Front Door controls the number of requests allowed from clients during a one-minute duration.
Reference:
https://www.nginx.com/blog/nginx-plus-and-azure-load-balancers-on-microsoft-azure/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/web-application-firewall/afds/waf-front-door-rate-limit-powershell

QUESTION 261
You need to recommend a solution to generate a monthly report of all the new Azure Resource Manager (ARM) resource deployments in your Azure subscription.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Activity Log
B. Azure Arc
C. Azure Analysis Services
D. Azure Monitor action groups

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Azure Monitor activity log is a platform log in Azure that provides insight into subscription-level events. The activity log includes information like when a resource is modified or a virtual machine is started.
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/essentials/activity-log?tabs=powershell

QUESTION 262
You have 100 devices that write performance data to Azure Blob Storage.
You plan to store and analyze the performance data in an Azure SQL database.
You need to recommend a solution to continually copy the performance data to the Azure SQL database.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Data Factory
B. Data Migration Assistant (DMA)
C. Azure Data Box
D. Azure Database Migration Service

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