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CompTIA A+ Essentials measures the necessary competencies of an entry-level IT professional with a recommended 500 hours of hands-on experience in the lab or field. It tests for technical understanding of computer technology, networking and security, as well as the communication skills and professionalism now required of all entry-level IT professionals.
Central Florida Widgets recently installed a new router in their WinterPark office. Complete the network installation by performing the initial router configurations and configuring RIPV2 routing using the router command line interface (CLI) on the WinterPark router.
Configure the router per the following requirements:
Name of the router is WinterPark
Enable-secret password is te23lith
The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is Con231D
The password to allow telnet access to the router is toyo12ta
IPV4 addresses must be configured as follows:
Ethernet network 209.165.202.128/27 – router has last assignable host address in subnet
Serial network is 192.0.2.192/28 – router has last assignable host address in the subnet. Interfaces should be enabled.
Router protocol is RIP V2
Corrent Answer:
(1) Name the router:
Router>enable
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#hostname WinterPark
(2) Set secret password:
WinterPark(config)#enable secret te23lith
(3) Set password for the console:
WinterPark(config)#line console 0
WinterPark(config-line)#password Con231D
WinterPark(config-line)#login
WinterPark(config-line)#exit
(4) Set the Telnet password:
WinterPark(config)#line vty 0 4
WinterPark(config-line)#password toyo12ta
WinterPark(config-line)#login
WinterPark(config-line)#exit
(5) Assign IP address for Ethernet interface (Fa0/0):
The Ethernet network 209.165.202.128/27 has:
Increment: 32 (/27 = 255.255.255.224 or 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1110 0000)
Network address: 209.165.202.128
Broadcast address: 209.165.202.159 (because 128 + 32 – 1 = 159)
Therefore the last assignable host address in this subnet is 209.165.202.158 and we will assign it to Fa0/0 interface with these commands:
WinterPark(config)#interface fa0/0
WinterPark(config-if)#ip address 209.165.202.158 255.255.255.224
WinterPark(config-if)#no shutdown
WinterPark(config-if)#exit
(6) Assign IP address for Serial interface (S0/0/0):
Serial network 192.0.2.192/28 has:
Increment: 16 (/28 = 255.255.255.240 or 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 0000)
Network address: 192.0.2.192
Broadcast address: 192.0.2.207 (because 192 + 16 – 1 = 207)
So the last assignable host address in this subnet is 192.0.2.207. Finally we assign it to s0/0/0 interface:
WinterPark(config)#interface s0/0/0
WinterPark(config-if)#ip address 192.0.2.207 255.255.255.240
WinterPark(config-if)#no shutdown
WinterPark(config-if)#exit
(7) Configure RIP v2 routing protocol:
WinterPark(config)#router rip
WinterPark(config-router)#version 2
WinterPark(config-router)#network 209.165.202.128
WinterPark(config-router)#network 192.0.2.207
WinterPark(config-router)#end
WinterPark#copy running-config startup-config
That's all.
A network associate is configuring a router for the CCNA Training company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the CCNA Training company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30.
The following have already been configured on the router：
– The basic router configuration
– The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside
– The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
– All passwords have been temporarily set to "cisco"
The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to provide Internet access for the hosts in the Weaver LAN. Functionality can be tested by clicking on the host provided for testing.
Configuration information
router name – Weaver
inside global addresses – 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110/29
inside local addresses – 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30/28
number of inside hosts – 14
Correct Answer:
The CCNA Training company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously but we just have 6 public IP addresses from 198.18.184.105 to 198.18.184.110/29. Therefore we have to use NAT overload (or PAT)
Double click on the Weaver router to open it
Router>enable
Router#configure terminal
First you should change the router's name to Weaver
Router(config)#hostname Weaver
Create a NAT pool of global addresses to be allocated with their netmask (/29 = 255.255.255.248). There were reports that the simulator in the real exam did not accept "prefix-length" keryword so you should use "netmask" keyword.
Weaver(config)#ip nat pool mypool 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110 netmask 255.255.255.248
Create a standard access control list that permits the addresses that are to be translated
Weaver(config)#access-list 1 permit 192.168.100.16 0.0.0.15
Establish dynamic source translation, specifying the access list that was defined in the prior step
Weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool overload
This command translates all source addresses that pass access list 1, which means a source address from 192.168.100.17 to 192.168.100.30, into an address from the pool named mypool (the pool contains addresses from 198.18.184.105 to 198.18.184.110)
Overload keyword allows to map multiple IP addresses to a single registered IP address (many-to-one) by using different ports
The question said that appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside statements.
This is how to configure the NAT inside and NAT outside, just for your understanding:
Weaver(config)#interface fa0/0
Weaver(config-if)#ip nat inside
Weaver(config-if)#exit
Weaver(config)#interface s0/0
Weaver(config-if)#ip nat outside
Weaver(config-if)#end
Finally, we should save all your work with the following command:
Weaver#copy running-config startup-config
Check your configuration by going to "Host for testing" and type:
C:\>ping 192.0.2.114
The ping should work well and you will be replied from 192.0.2.114
That’s all.
Note: Highlight for Answers
1: What are two features of JUNOS software? (Choose two.)
A.JUNOS facilitates separate control and forwarding planes.
B.All processes use shared memory to make efficient use of available resources.
C.The functionality of JUNOS is made possible through multiple processes that are dependant on each other.
D.All processes run in their own protected memory space to prevent against complete system failure when a single process fails.
Correct Answers: A D
2: Which two statements are correct regarding the DHCP snooping feature on EX-series switches? (Choose two.)
A.DHCP snooping forwards DHCPACK messages from DHCP servers on untrusted interfaces.
B.DHCP snooping drops DHCPOFFER messages from DHCP servers on untrusted interfaces.
C.DHCP snooping drops DHCPDISCOVER messages from DHCP clients on trusted interfaces.
D.DHCP snooping treats access ports as untrusted interfaces and trunk ports as trusted interfaces by default.
Correct Answers: B D
3: Which statement is true regarding the EX-series file system?
A.The file system must be cleaned manually after every upgrade.
B.The file system must be cleaned manually before every upgrade.
C.Contents in the /var directory are automatically archived for future software rollbacks.
D.Contents in the /var directory are automatically removed upon a successful software upgrade.
Correct Answers: D
4: When configuring a redundant trunk group (RTG) on an interface, which restriction would apply?
A.The interface cannot be configured as a Layer 2 trunk.
B.The gratuitous-ARP-reply must be disabled on the interface.
C.Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) cannot be configured on the interface.
D.The interface must be configured as a Layer 3 interface with an assigned IP address.
Correct Answers: C
5: Which statement is true regarding J-Web access?
A.Only HTTP can be used to access J-Web.
B.J-Web access is available only through the me0 interface.
C.J-Web access uses the same authentication method as the CLI.
D.The web-management service is enabled in the factory-default configuration.
Correct Answers: C
6: Which statement is correct about Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)?
A.DAI is configured on a per-port basis.
B.DAI is configured on a Layer 3 interface.
C.DAI requires DHCP snooping to be configured.
D.DAI disables the interface when an incorrect ARP packet is received.
Correct Answers: C
7: Which command shows the VRRP status for all interfaces?
A.show vrrp
B.show route vrrp
C.show vrrp terse
D.show interfaces vrrp
Correct Answers: A
8: Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, to which hierarchy level will the user be directed based upon the last command issued?
A.[edit]
root#
B.[edit protocols]
root#
C.[edit protocols ospf]
root#
D.[edit protocols ospf area]
root#
Correct Answers: C
9: Which two configuration options are valid methods for troubleshooting an EX-series switch? (Choose two.)
A.debug
B.syslog
C.monitor
D.traceoptions
Correct Answers: B D
10: Which two major components make up the control and forwarding planes for an EX-series switch? (Choose two.)
A.Routing Engine
B.Switching Engine
C.Switching Fabric Module
D.Packet Forwarding Engine
Correct Answers: A D
Note: Highlight for Answers
1: Within a virtual chassis, which type of switch maintains the forwarding table?
A.line card
B.master switch
C.routing switch
D.forwarding switch
Correct Answers: B
2: Which built-in security mechanism in the Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) can be used to encrypt advertisements?
A.There is no encryption in LLDP.
B.A plain-text password can be used.
C.MD5 hashing of the password can be used.
D.SHA-1 hashing of the password can be used.
Correct Answers: A
3: What are three key features of virtual chassis? (Choose three.)
A.dedicated active and standby switch fabrics
B.dedicated master and backup routing engines
C.ability to configure vcp-0 and vcp-1 interfaces to run at various speeds
D.ability to upgrade all members of a virtual chassis from the master switch
E.ability to interconnect members of a virtual chassis using the 10-Gigabit Ethernet uplink ports
Correct Answers: B D E
4: Which two actions are available when configuring the MAC limiting feature? (Choose two.)
A.Drop the traffic.
B.Change the forwarding-class of the traffic.
C.Redirect the traffic with changed loss-priority.
D.Shut down the interface so traffic will be blocked.
Correct Answers: A D
5: You are configuring the voice VLAN feature on an EX-series switch on interface ge-0/0/5.
Which configuration would you use?
A.ethernet-switching-options {
voice-vlan {
interface ge-0/0/5.0 {
vlan voice-over-ip;
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
}
B.ethernet-switching-options {
voip {
interface ge-0/0/5.0 {
member-vlan voice-over-ip;
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
}
C.ethernet-switching-options {
voip {
interface ge-0/0/5.0 {
vlan voice-over-ip;
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
}
D.ethernet-switching-options {
voice-vlan {
interface ge-0/0/5.0 {
member-vlan voice-over-ip;
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
}
Correct Answers: C
6: You want to configure a static default route to the gateway 10.1.1.1. Which set command will accomplish this task?
A.set routes static route 0.0.0.0/0 gateway 10.1.1.1
B.set protocols static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.1.1
C.set family inet static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.1.1
D.set routing-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.1.1
Correct Answers: D
7: Which three are included in the factory-default configuration? (Choose three.)
A.RSTP
B.LLDP
C.SNMP
D.user authentication
E.family ethernet-switching for all ports
Correct Answers: A B E
8: Which directory contains the rollback 4 configuration?
A./config
B./var/config
C./var/db/rollback
D./config/db/config
Correct Answers: D
9: Which statement describes a benefit of Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED)?
A.Allows an LLDP-MED-enabled switch to deliver VLAN and Class of Service (CoS) settings to a neighboring IP phone.
B.Allows an LLDP-MED-enabled switch to disable the interface when an invalid LLDP-MED advertisement is received from a neighboring IP phone.
C.Allows an LLDP-MED-enabled switch to forward the advertisements received from a neighboring IP phone on one LAN segment to another segment.
D.Allows an LLDP-MED-enabled switch to request an LLDP-MED advertisement from a neighboring IP phone when a periodic update is not received in a specific interval.
Correct Answers: A
10: Which statement is correct about the single-secure mode of 802.1X?
A.It does not require any supplicant on the interface; no supplicant is able to gain access.
B.It allows any one supplicant on the interface to be authenticated; once authentication is successful, any other devices on the same interface will gain access.
C.It allows any number of supplicants on the interface to be authenticated; only supplicants with their own successful authentication are allowed access at the same time.
D.It allows any one supplicant on the interface to be authenticated; once authentication is successful, only the successfully authenticated supplicant is allowed access at one time.
Correct Answers: D
Note: Highlight for Answers
1: Click on the Exhibit button. Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit? 
A.Direct
B.LAN
C.SAN
D.Mixed
Correct Answers: D
2: What is a set of CLARiiON disks used to provide storage space to a host?
A.Disk Array Enclosure
B.Disk Processor Enclosure
C.Logical Unit Number
D.RAID Group
Correct Answers: D
3: What are replicated in storage array based remote replication?
A.I/Os to source devices
B.Reads from source devices
C.Writes to source devices
D.Writes to target devices
Correct Answers: C
4: An application uses ten 9 GB devices. A full volume local replica of the application is required every 6 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. How many replica devices are required?
A.50
B.10
C.30
D.40
Correct Answers: D
5: What best describes a Fibre Channel SAN?
A.Dedicated storage network
B.Global interconnectivity network
C.Multi-protocol storage network
D.Multipurpose system network
Correct Answers: A
6: Which storage method will make data most accessible?
A.Jukebox
B.Magnetic Disk
C.Optical disk
D.Tape
Correct Answers: B
7: What is a feature of Internal DAS?
A.File level I/O utilization
B.High CPU I/O utilization
C.Local storage provisioning
D.Simultaneous volume level operating system accessibility
Correct Answers: C
8: Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to predict the possible failure of FC Switch ports before the ports actually fail?
A.Capacity
B.Health
C.Performance
D.Security
Correct Answers: C
9: What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent?’
A.Installation, Configuration, Problem Solving
B.Manageability, Integrity, Cost
C.Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting
D.Scalability, Accessibility, Security
Correct Answers: C
10: What is host memory?
A.Connection for parallel communication devices
B.Control point for all host activities and resources
C.High speed interconnect between the CPU and memory
D.Temporary location for commands and data
Correct Answers: D
11: Which remote replication method is most affected by the distance between source and target?
A.Asynchronous
B.Disk buffering
C.Log shipping
D.Synchronous
Correct Answers: D
12: Which Celerra component is used to manage and configure the NAS solution?
A.Control Station
B.Data Mover
C.Disk Array Enclosure
D.Storage Processor
Correct Answers: A
13: When is it necessary to hold application I/O to ensure a consistent copy?
A.Just after creating a point in time replica
B.Just before creating a point in time replica
C.Only when an application spans multiple hosts
D.Only when an application spans multiple storage arrays
Correct Answers: B
14: Which statement is true about iSCSI names?
A.Every initiator or target has a unique iSCSI name
B.iSCSI name is derived from the IP address
C.Only a target requires an iSCSI name
D.Only an initiator requires an iSCSI name
Correct Answers: A
15: What is a standard layer that resides between managed objects and management software?
A.CIFS
B.FC-SW
C.HDA
D.SMI-S
Correct Answers: D
Note: Highlight for Answers
1: Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B?
A.1 hour
B.2 hours
C.3 hours
D.4 hours
Correct Answers: B
2: What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems?
A.MirrorView/A
B.SnapView
C.SRDF/AR
D.TimeFinder
Correct Answers: A
3: Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability?
A.CSMA/CD
B.Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
C.Store and Forward
D.Switched Fabric
Correct Answers: B
4: Click on the Exhibit button. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit.
A.1 and 6
B.4 and 5
C.7 and 5
D.6 and 3
Correct Answers: A
5: What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk?
A.Concatenating
B.Formatting
C.Partitioning
D.Striping
Correct Answers: B
6: The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster?
A.Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours
B.Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours
C.Must be able to resume production within 4 hours
D.No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost
Correct Answers: D
7: Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data?
A.CAS
B.DAS
C.NAS
D.SAN
Correct Answers: A
8: In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed?
A.Hard Zoning
B.Mixed Zoning
C.Port Zoning
D.WWN Zoning
Correct Answers: D
9: A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk?
A.0 – 49,999
B.0 – 99,999
C.1 – 50,000
D.1 – 100,000
Correct Answers: B
10: Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7?
A.Availability
B.Manageability
C.Performance
D.Scalability
Correct Answers: A
11: What is the protocol used by a Windows client to communicate with a NAS device?
A.CIFS
B.FCP
C.NFS
D.SCSI
Correct Answers: A
12: What are two parts of cache?
A.Bitmap store and dirty store
B.Data store and bitmap store
C.Data store and tag RAM
D.Tag RAM and dirty store
Correct Answers: C
13: Which Data Center element stores customer and product information when the server is connected to an array?
A.Application
B.Database
C.Server
D.Storage Array
Correct Answers: B
14: What do you monitor as part of server performance?
A.Filesystem utilization
B.HBA status
C.Memory utilization
D.Power supply status
Correct Answers: C
15: What is the name of the drive subassembly containing the platters and R/W heads?
A.ATA
B.HBA
C.HDA
D.IDE
Correct Answers: C
Note: Highlight for Answers
1: After creating a XenApp Web site, an administrator must configure the __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A.farm zone
B.name of the farm
C.name of one or more servers in the farm
D.name of published applications accessible through the site
Correct Answers: B C
2: Scenario: An administrator implemented a Web Interface/Secure Gateway solution as shown in the attached exhibit. The firewall administrator requested information on which ports are required to be opened between the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server and the Citrix XenApp servers. Which two of the listed ports may need to be opened to allow users to launch an application and why? (Choose two.)
A.Port 1494 for ICA traffic
B.Port 2512 for IMA traffic
C.Port 2513 for IMA traffic
D.Port 2598 for session reliability
E.Port 27000 for Citrix XenApp licensing
Correct Answers: A D
3: Scenario: An administrator has a small Citrix XenApp farm. All users will access the farm through Web Interface. A small number of users have laptops and will require offline access to office applications as well as hosted applications.Which two steps are required to configure the Web Interface? (Choose two.)
A.Create a XenApp Web site.
B.Create a XenApp Services site.
C.Ensure the resource type is set to remote.
D.Ensure the resource type is set to streaming.
E.Ensure the resource type is set to dual mode streaming.
Correct Answers: B E
4: Scenario: An administrator wants to implement the Citrix Secure Gateway so that remote users can access their applications securely over the Web. There is a separate Secure Gateway and Web Interface server that is in a single-hop DMZ. There are 20 Citrix XenApp servers on the internal LAN hosting three applications. The administrator decided to use an internal Certification Authority to generate a signed certificate. In order to establish a successful client connection through Citrix Secure Gateway, an administrator should install __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct statements to complete the sentence.)
A.a root server certificate on a client machine
B.a server certificate on a Web Interface server
C.a server certificate on a Secure Gateway server
D.a root server certificate on a Web Interface server
Correct Answers: A C
5: The Web Interface server communicates directly with which component in the Citrix XenApp farm to obtain application lists?
A.Data store
B.Data Collector
C.Secure Gateway
D.Citrix XML Service
Correct Answers: D
6: Scenario: Users complained that they cannot launch an application when connecting through a XenApp Web site. They are able to authenticate and can see their list of published applications; however, they cannot launch an application. The users receive an error message stating that no server can be found at the location specified. What is a possible cause of this issue?
A.The Data Collector is down.
B.The users have authenticated against the wrong domain.
C.The Citrix XenApp server does NOT have pass-through enabled.
D.The XenApp Web site is reporting the wrong Citrix XenApp server address.
Correct Answers: D
7: Scenario: Following the acquisition of a small publishing firm, an administrator integrated the applications of the acquired firm into the existing Citrix XenApp farm. Users who access the published application are now reporting that the quality of the graphics have degraded significantly. These users connect over a WAN link from their offices to the Citrix XenApp farm. It is crucial that users of the published applications do NOT have their image quality degraded. Which step should the administrator take to resolve this?
A.Disable TWAIN Redirection.
B.Disable SpeedScreen Image Acceleration.
C.Set the Image Acceleration compression level to medium.
D.Enable heavyweight compression in the SpeedScreen policy rule.
Correct Answers: B
8: Scenario: An administrator configured a session bandwidth policy. The administrator set a maximum bandwidth rule of 200 Kbps and placed a 50 Kbps and a 30% restriction on the audio channel.The effective bandwidth for the audio channel will be __________ Kbps. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.15
B.50
C.60
D.200
Correct Answers: B
9: Some users in the Finance department experience delays when opening published Microsoft Outlook e-mails that are in HTML format and contain graphics. Which SpeedScreen solution should be configured to optimize the user experience and how?
A.Browser Acceleration at the client level
B.Latency Reduction at the application level
C.Latency Reduction at the server farm level
D.Browser Acceleration at the server farm level
Correct Answers: D
10: Scenario: An administrator decided to make a number of video-based training packages available to the Finance department through Citrix XenApp. The Citrix XenApp farm silo’s its applications and all Finance applications are in the Finance application silo. Other application silos include Technical, Sales and Workflow.Where can an administrator enable multimedia optimization for the finance training applications?
A.Server properties
B.Server farm properties
C.A policy applied to all Finance users
D.A policy applied to all servers in the Finance application silo
Correct Answers: A
11: Sound Quality, Special Folder Redirection and Turn off LPT ports are part of which set of rules in a policy?
A.Bandwidth
B.Service Level
C.Client Devices
D.User Workspace
Correct Answers: C
12: Scenario: An administrator recently deployed a new application to allow doctors to access patient radiology images from any desktop within their regional health network. The doctors are complaining about the lack of quality of the radiology images and the time it takes to load them.Which SpeedScreen technology will resolve this issue?
A.Latency Reduction
B.Progressive Display
C.Browser Acceleration
D.Multimedia Acceleration
Correct Answers: B
13: Scenario: Currently, a Citrix XenApp farm at an organization does NOT silo applications. Users are reporting that web-based training animations are NOT smooth and are difficult to view.What is the quickest method an administrator can use to optimize the animations?
A.Create a new policy.
B.Modify ICA-tcp security configurations.
C.Modify SpeedScreen Flash Acceleration in the farm properties.
D.Configure SpeedScreen Progressive Display in the server properties.
Correct Answers: C
14: Scenario: An administrator is planning a Citrix XenApp deployment. Clients will be newly-installed with the deployment of Citrix XenApp.
Based on the reequirements listed below, identify which client component will meet each requirement.
Click the Help button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Drag the appropriate client component that will meet each listed requirement. A single client component may be used more than once.
15: Which tool should an administrator use to manage policies in a Citrix XenApp farm?
A.Access Management Console
B.Microsoft Management Console
C.Terminal Services Configuration
D.XenApp Advanced Configuration
Correct Answers: D
Note: Highlight for Answers
1: Scenario: An administrator determined that an application pilot environment should be installed. Two servers have been allocated for this purpose. How should the pilot environment be established and why?
A.The servers should be placed in a distinct farm so that testing does NOT impact production.
B.The servers should be placed in a distinct zone so that testing does NOT impact production.
C.The servers should be configured based on virtual servers so that scalability data can be derived for physical servers.
D.The servers should be configured to access a distinct license server to prevent impacting license server communications.
Correct Answers: A
2: Scenario: An administrator installed the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool to administer a Citrix XenApp server remotely. The server is accessed through a WAN link and it is behind a firewall. Which TCP port should be opened on the firewall to allow the administrator to connect remotely by means of the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool?
A.1494
B.2512
C.2513
D.2598
Correct Answers: C
3: Scenario: An administrator is in the process of implementing zone preference and failover for a Citrix XenApp farm. The administrator already configured a Citrix policy named "ZPF Policy." Which three filters can the administrator use to apply this policy and implement zone preference and failover? (Choose three.)
A.Users
B.Servers
C.Client Name
D.Access Control
E.Client IP Address
Correct Answers: A C E
4: Session reliability is based on which Citrix service?
A.IMA
B.XML
C.XTE
D.Services Manager
Correct Answers: C
5: An administrator is installing Web Interface in order to support Windows laptop users that require offline applications.Which type of site should the administrator create to support these users?
A.XenApp Web
B.XenApp Services
C.Web Interface for SharePoint
D.XenApp Plugin for Streamed Apps
Correct Answers: B
6: An administrator was notified that the database server hosting the Citrix data store is down and decides to restore a backup database to a new server.
In which order should the administrator complete the required steps to direct Citrix communication to the new database server?
Click the Help button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Drag the steps to place them in the correct order required to direct Citrix communication to the new database server.
Correct Answers:
7: The Citrix License Management Console runs on which two supported web servers? (Choose two.)
A.IBM HTTP Server
B.Apache HTTP Server
C.SUN Java System Web Server
D.Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
Correct Answers: B D
8: Scenario: An administrator set up a firewall between a license server and several Citrix XenApp servers. All the default settings and ports were used. The administrator tests this new configuration and notices that the Citrix Licensing service is NOT running.What should the administrator do to make the Citrix Licensing service run?
A.Open port 8082 on the firewall.
B.Open port 27000 on the firewall.
C.Configure a static port number for the Citrix vendor daemon.
D.Configure the Citrix vendor daemon to communicate using a dynamic port.
Correct Answers: C
9: In order for an administrator to provide a user with access to resources published on a Citrix XenApp server, the user must be a member of which local group on the server?
A.Users
B.Guests
C.Power Users
D.Remote Desktop Users
Correct Answers: D
10: A company acquired another company but needs to keep the IT departments independent. What must the administrator create in order to keep the IT department independent from that of the acquired company?
A.A new farm
B.A new data store
C.A new license server
D.Additional Citrix XenApp servers
Correct Answers: A
11: What is the result of renaming an existing report log file?
A.A new report log is created.
B.A duplicate report log is created.
C.The original report log is deleted.
D.The original report log is overwritten.
Correct Answers: A
12: What should an administrator use to confirm the name of a Citrix License Server?
A.The queryhr command in a command prompt
B.The hostname command in a command prompt
C.The basic information screen in the Windows 2008 system applet
D.The server information screen in the Access Management Console
Correct Answers: B
13: Scenario: An administrator currently has Secure Gateway and Web Interface on the same server in the DMZ. After learning about Access Gateway, the administrator decided to purchase two units for redundancy that will be located in the DMZ and implement the increased functionality that Access Gateway offers. Two new Web Interface servers will be introduced. Where should the administrator place the Web Interface servers?
A.Both Web Interface servers should be placed in the DMZ.
B.Both Web Interface servers should be placed on the internal network.
C.One Web Interface server should be placed in the DMZ, and one Web Interface server should be placed on the internal network.
D.One Web Interface server should be placed on the internal network, and one Web Interface server should be placed on the external network.
Correct Answers: B
14: Scenario: An administrator at a graphic design company has recently completed a XenApp implementation. Web Interface has been configured to allow remote users to access their published applications and all clients are made available through the client deployment configuration. Both internal and remote users are running MAC operating systems with a mixture of Internet Explorer and Safari Browser. Which client will be used by default if a user is connecting from a Safari Browser?
A.Native Client
B.Client for Java
C.Embedded Native Client
D.Remote Desktop Connection
Correct Answers: B
15: Scenario: A single Web Interface server named xenappweb1.mycompany.com is currently being leveraged to host applications for Citrix users through HTTP. For additional redundancy and security as required by management, a second Web Interface server named xenappweb2.mycompany.com will be made available and load-balanced with a hardware load balancer and SSL will be used to secure all traffic to the Web Interface servers.In order to configure the environment to meet the requirements defined above, which three statements are valid configuration steps? (Choose three.)
A.Install a separate SSL certificate on each server that matches the FQDN of each server.
B.Install a root certificate on each Web Interface server that matches the certificate on the load balancer.
C.Create a new DNS entry for xenapp.mycompany.com and assign it the IP address of the VIP on the hardware load balancer.
D.Create a new CNAME alias in DNS for xenapp.mycompany.com and add both Web Interface server names to the record for load balancing.
E.Create a new load balancing group on the load balancer that contains the Web Interface sites from each Web Interface server that are to be load balanced.
Correct Answers: B C E
Note: Highlight for Answers
1: Which of the following do Technology metrics measure?
A.Components
B.Processes
C.The end to end service
D.Customer satisfaction
Correct Answers: A
2: Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?
A.Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
B.Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
C.Eliminating recurring Incidents
D.Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
Correct Answers: D
3: Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A.The Service Provider
B.The Service Level Manager
C.The Customer
D.The Finance department
Correct Answers: A
4: What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
A.An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
B.An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
C.A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
D.A document that describes business services to operational staff
Correct Answers: A
5: IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business Impact Analysis
4. Risk assessment
A.1, 2 and 4 only
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answers: C
6: Access Management is closely related to which other process?
A.Capacity Management only
B.3rd line support
C.Information Security Management
D.Change Management
Correct Answers: C
7: What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?
A.The Service Strategy and Service Transition books
B.The ITIL Complementary Guidance
C.The Service Support and Service Delivery books
D.Pocket Guides
Correct Answers: B
8: Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
A.The IT Director
B.The Process Owner
C.The Service Owner
D.The Customer
Correct Answers: B
9: Availability Management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?
A.IT Services and Components
B.IT Services and Business Processes
C.Components and Business Processes
D.IT Services, Components and Business Processes
Correct Answers: A
10: Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
A.Describes the topography of the hardware
B.Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C.Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D.Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Correct Answers: B
11: What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?
A.Rapid, one-off improvement
B.Return on investment within 12 months
C.Quick wins
D.Steady, ongoing improvement
Correct Answers: D
12: What is a RACI model used for?
A.Performance analysis
B.Recording Configuration Items
C.Monitoring services
D.Defining roles and responsibilities
Correct Answers: D
13: "Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?
A.Service Operation
B.Service Strategy
C.Service Transition
D.Continual Service Improvement
Correct Answers: C
14: Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?
A.To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
B.To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C.To ensure that overall business risk of change is optimized
D.To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
Correct Answers: D
15: Which areas of Service Management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and Modelling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern Recognition and Analysis
4. Detection and Monitoring
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.All of the above
Correct Answers: D
Note: Highlight for Answers
1: Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an Incident?
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Correct Answers: C
2: Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Correct Answers: C
3: Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 4 only
Correct Answers: A
4: Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
A.None of the above
B.Both of the above
C.1 only
D.2 only
Correct Answers: B
5: Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A.Change Management
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Design
Correct Answers: D
6: Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A.Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B.Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C.Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D.Development, negotiation and agreement of Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)
Correct Answers: B
7: Which of the following activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model?
A.Implementing service and process improvements
B.Reviewing measurable improvements
C.Creating a baseline
D.Defining measurable targets
Correct Answers: D
8: Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
A.1, 2 and 4 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answers: A
9: Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)?
A.The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B.The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C.An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D.An SLA for a service with no customers
Correct Answers: A
10: Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A.Capacity Management
B.Governance
C.Service Design
D.Service Level Management
Correct Answers: B
11: Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?
A.Categorization
B.Diagnosis
C.Prioritization
D.Closure
Correct Answers: A
12: Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B.The design of new or changed services
C.The design of Market Spaces
D.The design of the technology architectures
Correct Answers: C
13: A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A.Yes: for ease of management, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
B.No: a known error record must only be created after a workaround has been found
C.No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised
D.No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service
Correct Answers: A
14: Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A.Change Management
B.Service Catalogue Management
C.Supplier Management
D.Release and Deployment Management
Correct Answers: C
15: Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A.Measurement, methods and metrics
B.Service Design Package
C.Service Portfolio Design
D.Process definitions
Correct Answers: B