2014 Latest CompTIA CAS-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
At 10:35 a.m. a malicious user was able to obtain a valid authentication token which allowed read/write access to the backend database of a financial company. At 10:45 a.m. the security administrator received multiple alerts from the company’s statistical anomaly-based IDS about a company database administrator performing unusual transactions. At 10:55 a.m. the security administrator resets the database administrator’s password.
At 11:00 a.m. the security administrator is still receiving alerts from the IDS about unusual transactions from the same user. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the alerts?

A.    The IDS logs are compromised.
B.    The new password was compromised.
C.    An input validation error has occurred.
D.    A race condition has occurred.

Answer: D

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2014 Latest Juniper JN0-101 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of a network mask?

A.    It is used to identify the maximum hop count of a subnetwork
B.    It is used to identify an IP address as either private or public
C.    It is used to identify the network to which an IP address belongs
D.    It is used to identify the total number of bits present in an IP address

Answer: C

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2014 Latest Vmware VCAC510 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You work at a small, but rapidly expanding chain of retail stores. You have a private cloud in place which works well most of the year, but to manage the annual holiday peak load on your Internet store, you have decided to utilize a hybrid cloud as needed. Which two components are required when deploying a hybrid cloud environment? (Choose two.)

A.    vFabric Hyperic
B.    vCloud Connector
C.    vCenter Operations Management Suite
D.    vCloud Director

Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
You have successfully completed the initial deployment of your company’s cloud. Now management wants to make sure everything continues to run well and that you are meeting all of your SLAs. Which vCloud Suite software component will best help you do this?

A.    vCenter Automation Center
B.    vCloud Management Assistant
C.    vSphere Management Assistant Appliance
D.    vCenter Operations Management Suite

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator is deciding on a hybrid cloud solution based on a given set of requirements. The requirements include a single virtual datacenter with logically isolated resources and multi-tenancy capability. Which service option would satisfy the given requirements?

A.    Virtual Private Cloud Service option
B.    Dedicated Cloud Service option
C.    vCloud Public Service option
D.    vCloud Private Service option

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your development team has informed you they frequently run tests which require three VMs and take two days to run. When the tests are complete, there is no further need to keep the VMs or the resources they have been consuming. Which of the following products would best help you manage the requirements of this test environment?

A.    vCloud Director
B.    vFabric Suite
C.    vCenter Orchestrator
D.    vCloud Automation Center

Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You work at a small ISP and need to provide multiple virtual datacenters for your multi-tenancy environment. Which of the following would you do to build a multi-tenancy environment?

A.    Build multiple virtual datacenters using vFabric Suite
B.    Build multiple Org vDCs using vCloud Director
C.    Build multiple Provider vDCs using vCloud Connector
D.    Build multiple External Networks using vCloud Director

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&external Id=1026339

QUESTION 6
After this morning’s high-level, sales-oriented cloud seminar, your colleague is still unclear on the relationship between an Org vDC and a Provider vDC and asks you to help explain why you would set up multiple Provider vDCs. What would you tell him?

A.    You want to implement hardware-based resource tiering
B.    Multiple Provider vDCs are required for organizations which have multiple internal networks
C.    Each Org vDC requires its own Provider vDC
D.    Multiple Provider VDCs would allow for segmenting of identical sets of physical hardware

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vcd-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vcloud.api.doc_51%2FGUID- 6DA11728-5405-4554-BEFD-81E8F4D80161.html

QUESTION 7
Your manager heard on a webinar that vCenter Operations Manager has the ability to create custom groups so that he could better align performance and management decisions with the business. Which two custom groups could you create? (Choose two.)

A.    DRS/HA Cluster
B.    Application
C.    vCenter Datacenter
D.    Line of business

Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.vmware.com/pdf/vcops-56-getting-started-guide.pdf

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2014 Latest Vmware VCAC510 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You work at a small, but rapidly expanding chain of retail stores. You have a private cloud in place which works well most of the year, but to manage the annual holiday peak load on your Internet store, you have decided to utilize a hybrid cloud as needed. Which two components are required when deploying a hybrid cloud environment? (Choose two.)

A.    vFabric Hyperic
B.    vCloud Connector
C.    vCenter Operations Management Suite
D.    vCloud Director

Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
You have successfully completed the initial deployment of your company’s cloud. Now management wants to make sure everything continues to run well and that you are meeting all of your SLAs. Which vCloud Suite software component will best help you do this?

A.    vCenter Automation Center
B.    vCloud Management Assistant
C.    vSphere Management Assistant Appliance
D.    vCenter Operations Management Suite

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator is deciding on a hybrid cloud solution based on a given set of requirements. The requirements include a single virtual datacenter with logically isolated resources and multi-tenancy capability. Which service option would satisfy the given requirements?

A.    Virtual Private Cloud Service option
B.    Dedicated Cloud Service option
C.    vCloud Public Service option
D.    vCloud Private Service option

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your development team has informed you they frequently run tests which require three VMs and take two days to run. When the tests are complete, there is no further need to keep the VMs or the resources they have been consuming. Which of the following products would best help you manage the requirements of this test environment?

A.    vCloud Director
B.    vFabric Suite
C.    vCenter Orchestrator
D.    vCloud Automation Center

Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You work at a small ISP and need to provide multiple virtual datacenters for your multi-tenancy environment. Which of the following would you do to build a multi-tenancy environment?

A.    Build multiple virtual datacenters using vFabric Suite
B.    Build multiple Org vDCs using vCloud Director
C.    Build multiple Provider vDCs using vCloud Connector
D.    Build multiple External Networks using vCloud Director

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&external Id=1026339

QUESTION 6
After this morning’s high-level, sales-oriented cloud seminar, your colleague is still unclear on the relationship between an Org vDC and a Provider vDC and asks you to help explain why you would set up multiple Provider vDCs. What would you tell him?

A.    You want to implement hardware-based resource tiering
B.    Multiple Provider vDCs are required for organizations which have multiple internal networks
C.    Each Org vDC requires its own Provider vDC
D.    Multiple Provider VDCs would allow for segmenting of identical sets of physical hardware

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vcd-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vcloud.api.doc_51%2FGUID- 6DA11728-5405-4554-BEFD-81E8F4D80161.html

QUESTION 7
Your manager heard on a webinar that vCenter Operations Manager has the ability to create custom groups so that he could better align performance and management decisions with the business. Which two custom groups could you create? (Choose two.)

A.    DRS/HA Cluster
B.    Application
C.    vCenter Datacenter
D.    Line of business

Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.vmware.com/pdf/vcops-56-getting-started-guide.pdf

Passing your Vmware VCAC510 Exam by using the latest Vmware VCAC510 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/vcac510.html

2014 Latest Vmware VCAD510 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You have a virtual machine that requires a software update. You have not yet tested the update, so you need a back out plan. If the update fails you want to recover the VM to its current state. Which of the following features will help you do this in the least amount of time?

A.    Fault Tolerance
B.    vSphere Replication
C.    Snapshots
D.    vSphere Data Protection

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.vmware.com/support/ws4/doc/preserve_snapshot_ws.html

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-030 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
When querying the v$sysstat, v$sesstat or v$mystat views, you notice the statistic “workarea executions – onepass”. What is the meaning of this statistic?
A.    It is the cumulative count of work areas running in more than one pass.
B.    It is the total amount of PGA memory dedicated to the work areas using the one pass size.
C.    It is the cumulative count of work areas using the one pass size, where large sorts have spilled to disk.
D.    It is the cumulative count of work areas using the one pass size, which did not have to spill to disk.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which method would you consider while implementing automatic undo management in an Oracle9i Real Application Clusters (RAC) environment?

A.    creating a single undo tablespace with a nondefault block size and placing the data file on the shared raw device
B.    creating a single undo tablespace with the default block size for all instances participating in RAC and placing the data file on the primary node
C.    creating a single undo tablespace with the default block size for all instances participating in RAC and placing the data file on the shared raw device
D.    creating multiple undo tablespaces, one for each instance participating in RAC, and placing the data file on the respective nodes
E.    creating multiple undo tablespaces, one for each instance participating in RAC, and placing the data files on the shared raw device

Answer: E

QUESTION 3
You want to create a database with automatic undo management. Which two options would you consider for the undo tablespace that would hold the undo segments? (Choose two.)

A.    It must not be in logging mode.
B.    It can have nonstandard block size.
C.    It must be a locally managed tablespace.
D.    It must be a dictionary-managed tablespace.
E.    It must be created along with database creation.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option would you use to enable automatic SQL execution memory management?

A.    Set the SGA_TARGET parameter to a nonzero value.
B.    Set the %_AREA_SIZE parameter to a nonzero value.
C.    Set the WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY parameter to Auto.
D.    Set the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter to a nonzero value.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Consider the following statement:
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SCHEMA_STATS (-
2> ownname => ‘OE’, –
3> estimate_percent => DBMS_STATS.AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE, – 4> method_opt => ‘for all columns size AUTO’);
What is the effect of ‘for all columns size AUTO’ of the METHOD_OPT option?

A.    The Oracle server creates a new histogram based on existing histogram definitions for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
B.    The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution regardless of how the application uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
C.    The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution and application usage of the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D.    The Oracle server creates a histogram based on application usage, regardless of data distribution, for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement describes the use of the cached execution plans feature?

A.    improves the performance of SQL statements
B.    provides better diagnosis of query performance
C.    avoids the need to set the CURSOR_SHARING parameter
D.    helps maintain cached execution plans even after the SQL statement is aged out of the Library Cache

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You have a tablespace, APP_TBSP, with a non-OMF file. To ease file management, you set the following parameters in the server-persistent parameter file (SPFILE) of your database instance and restart the instance:
DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST = /u01/oradata/orcl
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_1 = /u02/oradata/orcl
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_2 = /u03/oradata/orcl
Then, you execute the following command to add a new data file to the tablespace:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE app_tbsp ADD DATAFILE;
What would be the result of this command?

A.    The command fails because there are no name and size specified for the data file.
B.    The command fails because a tablespace cannot have both OMF and non-OMF files.
C.    The command succeeds by adding a new data file with file size equal to that of the existing file.
D.    The command succeeds by adding a new data file with OMF default used for the size and the OMF naming conventions used for the file name.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
The backup retention policy is configured as RECOVERY WINDOW 2. You executed the following command in RMAN against your database:
RMAN> REPORT OBSOLETE;
What would you see in the output?

A.    a list of all the expired backups and copies
B.    a list of all those backups and copies that have been deleted within the last two days
C.    a list of all those backups and copies that have been recovered within the last two days
D.    a list of backups and copies that are no longer needed to perform recovery with the range covered by the current retention policy

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Identify the two steps that are performed during native PL/SQL compilation for the PL/SQL blocks other than the top-level anonymous PL/SQL blocks. (Choose two.)

A.    compilation of program into C code
B.    compilation of program into byte code
C.    compilation of program into native code
D.    compilation of program into binary code

Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Online index rebuild functionality can be used to rebuild all the indexes in the options below except _____.

A.    b-tree indexes
B.    bitmap indexes
C.    reverse key indexes
D.    function-based indexes

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Examine the structure of the ORDERS table as shown in the Exhibit. You want to generate a single report that must contain:
– order ID, customer ID, order date, order value
– total order value for a customer ID
– total order value for an order date
In addition to the column list and table name, what would you use in the SELECT statement that is used to generate the report?
 clip_image002

A.    the GROUP BY clause only
B.    the GROUP BY clause with CUBE
C.    the GROUP BY clause with ROLLUP
D.    the GROUP BY clause with GROUPING SETS

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You have defined the MAX_EST_EXEC_TIME resource plan directive in your database. What happens when an operation requires more time than specified in the directive?

A.    The operation will not start.
B.    The session running the operation will be terminated.
C.    The operation will be executed in parts to match the time specified in the directive.
D.    The operation will be started but the value of the directive will be changed automatically to a new value.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
For each value in a column of a table, a _____ index stores the ROWIDs of corresponding rows in one or more tables.

A.    B-tree
B.    Bitmap
C.    Bitmap Join
D.    Reverse Key
E.    Compressed B-tree

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which view would you query to determine the current default temporary tablespace of the database?

A.    V$TEMPFILE
B.    V$DATABASE
C.    V$TABLESPACE
D.    DBA_TABLESPACES
E.    DATABASE_PROPERTIES

Answer: E

QUESTION 15
You have set the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to SIMILAR in your database. You executed the following queries, which differ only in literal values:
SQL> SELECT invno, qty, totamt FROM sales WHERE prodid=645; SQL> SELECT invno, qty, totamt FROM sales WHERE prodid=735;
What would be the effect of the CURSOR_SHARING parameter setting if queries were using cost-based optimizer (CBO)?

A.    no attempt to replace literals by bind variables
B.    usage of index-related information by the optimizer is avoided
C.    optimizer is forced to examine the histograms associated with the columns
D.    use of the same execution plan by the optimizer when statistics indicate a skewed data distribution

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
How would you define the Character Set Scanner?

A.    a tool used to identify the characters that require Unicode conversion
B.    a tool used to identify the data loss while changing the character sets of a database
C.    a tool used to identify data that is stored in a character set other than that of the database
D.    a tool used to identify and convert data that is incompatible with the current character set of a database

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You discovered the following messages in a user trace file:
ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 9, block # 21) ORA-01110: data file 9: ‘/oracle/oradata/tech/techdet01.dbf’ ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 2, block # 19) ORA-01110: data file 2: ‘/oracle/oradata/tech/undotbs01.dbf’ Furthermore, you found that some of the redo records not pertaining to block number 19 or 21 of the techdet01.dbf file are missing.
You executed the following command to perform block media recovery:
BLOCKRECOVER DATAFILE 9 BLOCK 21 DATAFILE 2 BLOCK 19;
What would this command do?

A.    It recovers both the blocks successfully.
B.    The recovery fails and no blocks are recovered.
C.    It restores both the blocks but performs no recovery.
D.    It recovers only the block that belongs to the undotbs01.dbf file.
E.    It recovers the block that belongs to the undotbs01.dbf file and restores only block 21 of techdet01.dbf.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
View the Exhibit and examine the RMAN configuration. You execute the following command to perform tablespace backup:
RMAN> run
2> {
3> BACKUP TABLESPACE users;
4> }
What would the command do?
 clip_image002[4]

A.    The command fails because there is no channel allocated in the RUN block.
B.    The command successfully performs tablespace backup using default disk channel.
C.    The command successfully performs tablespace backup without using any channel.
D.    The command fails because there is no channel configured using the CONFIGURE command.

Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the meaning of using “character semantics” to create a table?

A.    You use only use CHAR data types.
B.    All columns are a single character wide.
C.    You use single letter names of all columns.
D.    You specify the width of a column in characters, not in bytes.
E.    You use only character type data types (CHAR, NCHAR, VARCHAR2, NVARCHAR2, CLOB, NCLOB).

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Oracle Enterprise Manager can generate database reports. Which three statements are true about this feature? (Choose three.)

A.    It can generate bar chart diagrams.
B.    It generates HTML reports of database objects.
C.    You can extend the reports with your own SQL selects.
D.    It can be run stand-alone, without a repository or agent.

Answer: BCD
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2014 Latest EXIN EX0-102 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is a description of Governance?

A.    How IT resources will be used to meet goals and deliver business value
B.    a process that ensures individualsare aware of regulations, policies, and procedures that must be followed as a result of senior management decisions management
C.    Who holds the authority to make decisions, determines accountability for actions and responsibility for outcomes, and addresses how expected performance will be evaluated
D.    Possible adverse impacts on reaching goals and can arise from actions taken or not taken

Answer: C

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2014 Latest EMC E20-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B?

A.    1 hour
B.    2 hours
C.    3 hours
D.    4 hours

Answer: B

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-144 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table.
Which stages are performed when the above block is executed? (Choose all that apply)
 clip_image001[4]

A.    Bind
B.    Parse
C.    Fetch
D.    Execute

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
Which system events can be used to create triggers that fire both at database and schema levels? (Choose all that apply)

A.    AFTER LOGON
B.    AFTER STARTUP
C.    BEFORE SHUTDOWN
D.    AFTER SERVERERROR

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In which of the following scenarios would you recommend using PL/SQL records?

A.    when you want to retrieve an entire row from a table and perform calculations
B.    when you know the number of elements in advance and the elements are usually accessed sequentially
C.    when you want to create a separate lookup table with multiple entries for each row of the main table,
and access it through join queries
D.    when you want to create a relatively small lookup table, where the collection can be constructed in
memory each time a subprogram is invoked

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the employees table.
 clip_image001[6]
Execute the following block of code:
 clip_image002[9]
What is the outcome?

A.    It gives an error because group functions cannot be used in anonymous blocks
B.    It executes successfully and correctly gives the result of the sum of salaries in department 60.
C.    It executes successfully and incorrectly gives the result of the sum of salaries in department 60.
D.    It gives an error because the variable name and column name are the same in the where clause of the select statement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Examine the following snippet of PL/SQL code:
 clip_image001[8]
View the exhibit for table description of EMPLOYEES table. The EMPLOYEES table has 200 rows.
 clip_image002[11]
Identify open statement for opening the cursor that fetches the result as consisting of employees with JOB_ID as `ST_CLERK’ and salary greater than 3000.

A.    OPEN c1 (NULL, 3000);
B.    OPEN c1 (emp_job, 3000);
C.    OPEN c1 (3000, emp_salary);
D.    OPEN c1 (`ST_CLERK’, 3000)
E.    OPEN c1 (EMP_job, emp_salary);

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table
 clip_image001[10]
The salary of EMPLOYEE_ID 195 is 2800.
You execute the following code
 clip_image001[12]
What is the outcome?

A.    It gives an error because only the innermost block is labeled
B.    It gives an error because the same variable name cannot be used across all the nested blocks.
C.    It executes successfully and displays the resultant values in the following sequence- 1000, 2800
50000, 2800.
D.    It executes successfully and displays the resultant values in the following sequence: 1000, 2800,
50000, 1000.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about the usage of the cursor for loops? (Choose two.)

A.    The cursor needs to be closed after the iteration is complete.
B.    The implicit open, fetch, exit, and close of the cursor happen.
C.    The record type must be explicitly declared to control the loop.
D.    The PL/SQL creates a record variable with the fields corresponding to the columns of the cursor result set.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Examine the following PL/SQL code:
 clip_image001[14]
Which statement is true about the execution of the code if the query in the PL/SQL block returns no rows?

A.    The program abruptly terminates and an exception is raised.
B.    The program executes successfully and the output is No ROWS_FOUND.
C.    The program executes successfully and the query fetches a null value in the V_LNAME variable.
D.    Program executes successfully, fetches a NULL value in the V_LNAME variable and an exception is raised.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Consider the following scenario:
Local procedure a calls remote procedure B
Procedure A was compiled at 8 AM.
Procedure A was modified and recompiled at 9 AM.
Remote procedure B was later modified and recompiled at 11 AM.
The dependency mode is set to timestamp.
Which statement correctly describes what happens when procedure A is invoked at 1 PM?

A.    Procedure A is invalidated and recompiled immediately.
B.    There is no effect on procedure A and it runs successfully.
C.    Procedure B is invalidated and recompiled again when invoked.
D.    Procedure A is invalidated and recompiles when invoked the next time.

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Examine the following snippet of code from the DECLARE section of PL/SQL
DECLARE
Cut_name VERCHAR2 (20) NOT NULL := `tom jones’:
Same_name cut_name\TYPE:
Which statement is correct about the above snippets of code?

A.    The variable inherits only the data type from the CUT_NAME variable.
B.    The same_name variable inherits only the data type and default value from the CUT_NAME variable.
C.    The 3ake_nake variable inherits the data type, constraint, and default value from the CUT_NAME
variable.
D.    The 3ake_nake variable inherits only the data type and constraint from the CUT_NAME variable
resulting in an error

Answer: AB
Passing your Oracle 1Z0-144 Exam by using the latest 1Z0-144 Exam Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/1z0-144.html

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