[October-2020]Braindump2go 350-401 Dumps VCE and 350-401 Dumps PDF for Free[Q208-Q230]
2020/October Latest Braindump2go 350-401 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 350-401 Real Exam Questions!
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 interface. Why do the extended pings fail?
A. The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 1476 bytes.
B. R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30
C. R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency
D. The DF bit has been set
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?
A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.
B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.
C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.
D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet?
A. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload
B. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
C. ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
D. ip nat outside source static 184.108.40.206 10.10.10.0 overload
An engineer configures monitoring on SW1 and enters the show command to verify operation. What does the output confirm?
A. SPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch
B. SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14.
C. SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15.
D. RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring
Which two characteristics define the Intent API provided by Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)
A. northbound API
B. business outcome oriented
D. southbound API
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that executes the show run command and then terminates the session when user CCNP legs in.
Which configuration change is required?
A. Add the access-class keyword to the username command
B. Add the access-class keyword to the aaa authentication command
C. Add the autocommand keyword to the username command
D. Add the autocommand keyword to the aaa authentication command
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration?
A. The device will allow users at 192.168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password ciscotestkey
B. The device will allow only users at 192 168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4
C. When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4. the device will authenticate them against TACACS* if local authentication fails
D. The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+
How is a data modeling language used’
A. To enable data to be easily structured, grouped validated, and replicated
B. To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed.
C. To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure.
D. To provide human readability to scripting languages
Which three methods does Cisco DNA Centre use to discover devices? (Choose three)
F. a specified range of IP addresses
Refer to the exhibit. Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router?
A. Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0
B. Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0
C. Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0
D. Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. Which protocol ensures that traffic is not disrupted in the event of a hardware failure?
An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in the group, it must assume the master role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish this task?
A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254
vrrp 10 preempt
B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254
standby 10 priority 120
C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0
vrrp group 10 priority 120
D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0
standby 10 preempt
What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose Two)
A. In a cloud environment, the company controls technical issues. On-prem environments rely on the service provider to resolve technical issue.
B. Cloud costs adjust up or down depending on the amount of resources consumed. On- Prem costs for hardware, power, and space are ongoing regardless of usage
C. Cloud deployments require long implementation times due to capital expenditure processes. On-Prem deployments can be accomplished quickly using operational expenditure processes.
D. Cloud resources scale automatically to an increase in demand. On-prem requires additional capital expenditure.
E. In a cloud environment, the company is in full control of access to their data. On-prem risks access to data due to service provider outages
Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form?
A. network 220.127.116.11.0.0.0.0 area 0
B. network 18.104.22.168 255.255.0.0. area 0
C. network 22.214.171.124.0.0.255.255 area 0
D. network 126.96.36.199 255.255.255 area 0
Refer the exhibit. Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?
A. This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.
B. This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.
C. Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID
D. Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID
Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20?
A. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
D. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
Refer to the exhibit. Edge-01 is currently operational as the HSRP primary with priority 110. Which command on Edge-02 causes it to take over the forwarding role when Edge-01 is down?
A. standby 10 priority
B. standby 10 preempt
C. standby 10 track
D. standby 10 timers
What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?
A. send join messages toward a multicast source SPT
B. ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver.
C. receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers.
D. secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver.
You are configuring a controller that runs Cisco IOS XE by using the CLI. Which three configuration options are used for 802.11w Protected Management Frames? (Choose three.)
C. SA teardown protection
During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?
A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26
Refer to the exhibit.
A wireless client is connecting to FlexAP1 which is currently working standalone mode.
The AAA authentication processis returning the following AVPs:
Which three behaviors will the client experience? (Choose three.)
A. While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
B. While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
C. When the AP transitions to connected mode, the client will be de-authenticated.
D. While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
E. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
F. When the AP transitions to connected mode, the client will remain associated.
G. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
H. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
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