Avaya ACSS 6201 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Call Center Elite and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam: 6201 Exam

  • 6201 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 6201
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Call Center Elite and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 77 Q&As

1.You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone server. Which statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008 operating system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin of any other user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as iceAdmin or as any other user
Answer: B

2.You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot establish a connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to troubleshoot the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

3.In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have agents logged in with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous contact types such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by implementing the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like visualization
Answer: B

4.After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you want to display the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

5.Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in the binding order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in the binding order
Answer: C

6.You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and Server Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

7.You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The Application will be installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008 operating system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6 functionality?
A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the IPv6 check box
Answer: D

8.Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating system before you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

9.In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) supports secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security Certificate management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

10.A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

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Avaya ACSS 6002 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam: 6002 Exam

  • 6002 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 6002
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 78 Q&As

1.When troubleshooting a system fault, if the web interface or SAT are unavailable, which method should be used?
A. SAL
B. TTY2
C. CLI
D. MODEM
Answer: C

2.Which two series support RAID 5 configuration for CM6.0? (Choose two)
A. S8730 Server with 8 GB RAM
B. S8800 Server with 12 GB RAM
C. S8510 Server with 8 GB RAM
D. S8300D Server with 8 GB RAM
Answer: B,C

3.Hunt group number 99, with group extension 4199, is administered for messaging.
Which command needs to be executed at the SAT terminal to troubleshoot hunt group 99?
A. Shoe tracelog huntgroup 4199
B. View logs real time huntgroup 99
C. Display real time logs hunt group 99
D. List trace hunt-group 4199
Answer: D

4.A customer needs to set up SIP integration on Communication Manager Messaging Application What are three pieces of information that are needed to meet this requirement? (Choose three)
A. Signaling group number
B. SIP domain
C. Transport Method
D. Extension length
E. Hunt Group number
Answer: B,C,D

5.Which three are tests that can be performed to Verify a communication manager Messaging 6.0 application is working properly? (Choose three)
A. Verify the hunt group status
B. Check the messaging port status using the display port command
C. Call the messaging Hunt Group
D. Check the messaging port status using the status port command
E. Perform message waiting indication test
Answer: A,C,E

6.On a media gateway G450, which slots are permitted for the MM 342?
A. V1 and V2
B. V6 and V6
C. V3 and V8
D. V5 and V7
Answer: C

7.A customer is planning to upgrade from CM 5X to CM 6.0 an existing 8510 server.
What is the total minimum memory requirement for this upgrade?
A. 4 GB RAM
B. 8 GB RAM
C. 12 GB RAM
D. 16 GB RAM
Answer: B

8.Which screen is used while upgrading the system platform from release 6.0.0.09 to release 6.0.0.11?
A. Communication manager Web interface
B. Console domain Server Management Path management
C. Console domain Server Management Platform Upgrade
D. Console domain Virtual Machine Management
Answer: C

9.Which three statements about CM_Duplex CM 6.0 are true?
A. Software duplication is available, but hardware duplication is not available.
B. The S8510 server is not used for duplication
C. Server duplication is configured via Failover option on CDROMs web interface
D. S8730 with DAL 2 card does not support server duplication in CM 6.0.
E. The CM duplex template supports CMM
Answer: A,B,D

10.Which gateway command resets the Gateway back to factory default?
A. Reset
B. Restart
C. Softboot
D. Nvram init
Answer: D

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Avaya ACSS 3600 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam: 3600 Exam

  • 3600 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 3600
  • Exam Name: Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam
  • Q & A: 85 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected
without intermediary WAN transport devices.
What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 2
The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use of an MPLS network.
Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation D.
The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE devices.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent. The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is
undetermined at this point and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels.
How can the ERS 8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
Traceout allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI command. In the command output, the possible range of ‘w’ values is 1-255.
The ‘w’ value represents wait time for what?
A. Start of command execution
B. Time to live
C. Per probe
D. Completion of traceout report
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
What is Enterprise Policy Manager (EPM) used for in an Enterprise network?
A. to manage traffic prioritization and network access security for business applications
B. as an alternative to EA servers
C. to distribute control of packet classification for resiliency and efficiency
D. to assign user role attributes on the RADIUS server
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
Which protocol can be used for end-to-end detection in a network as well as for point-to-point detection?
A. LACP
B. VLACP
C. RSTP
D. MSTP
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server.
Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
The trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
A technician is configuring 802.1Q tagging Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) with timeout and untagged frames to be discarded.
Which part of the network is being configured?
A. 1ST
B. the out-of-band management port
C. the edge access ports
D. the uplinks
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11
When incorporating Split Multi-Link Trunk (SMLT) on a pair of Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches traffic from the edge of the network is directed to either ERS 8600. The ping-snoop feature assists in determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
Determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
A. Ping-snoop looks at the IP header and directs traffic to designated link.
B. Ping-snoop looks at the MAC header and directs traffic to the designated link
C. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the IP flow specified in the ping-snoop command.
D. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the MAC header (source and destination) specified in the ping-snoop command.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
One of the benefits of the Ethernet Routing switch (ERS) 8300 switch is its ability to provide power-over-Ethernet (PoE). When implementing PoE on the ERS 8300 there are certain power supply requirements to consider. The 8301AC produces 1140W and 1770W and the 8302AC produces 850W and 1400W depending on the input voltage for both cases.
If there are eight 8648TX-PWR modules in a chassis, each needing 200W for Powered Devices
(PI)) which power supply configuration is recommended?
A. One8301AC power supply with 240VAC input voltage
B. Two8302AC power supplies with 120VAC input voltage
C. Three83CAC power supplies with 240VAC input voltage
D. Two8301AC andone8302Ac for redundancy with 240VAC input voltage
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13
When configuring an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 redundant Installation for warm standby, which protocol is used to give the fastest recalculation of large layer 3 topology by the standby CPU, after a Master CPU failure?
A. STP
B. Rip
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface prompt.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
Which set of procedures will upgrade the boot monitor on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 with a single 8692SF module?
A. Copy the new image to flash. Activate the new image with SF module in service.
B. Copy the new image to flash. Boot the new image.
C. Modify the boot choice for run-time image. Boot the new image.
D. Copy the new image to flash. Modify the boot choice for run-time image. Boot the new image.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 16
Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 17
Which feature can be used on a Split Multi I ink Trunking (SMLT) with a Sod Down option?
A. Extended control packet limit (ext-CP)
B. Discard untagged frames
C. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP)
D. Virtual Link Aggregation Protocol (VLACP)
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 18
Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
What is a characteristic of Routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) configuration?
A. RSMLT is only configured on edge SMLT connections.
B. RSMLT uses priority values to distinguish between the primary and backup routers
C. RSMLT routers are implemented with Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF)-Lite routers
D. RSMLT is always used in conjunction with routing protocols and SMLT connections.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 20
An Information Technology organization needs to determine whether they should upgrade their existing Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches to release 5.0. Each chassis currently has both 8648GTR 8648TX modules. One of the features that the company requires is the ability to perform port mirroring on multiple ports per module at a time.
What should be done to meet their port mirroring requirement when upgrading to software release 5.0?
A. Replace the existing modules with 8648GTRS modules,
B. Upgrade to ERS 8600 Release 5.0 without any hardware upgrade.
C. Replace the existing 8648TX modules with ERS 8648TXE for egress mirroring.
D. Recommend other means to capturing traffic.
Answer: B

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Avaya ACSS 3305 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance exam: 3305 Exam

  • 3305 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 3305
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance exam
  • Q & A: 68 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
In the Intelligent Customer Routing (ICK) deployment, all agents in the call center are either logged out or in Auxiliary mode.
Which is an accurate description of how ICR handles a call arriving in the system?
A. The ICR Core performs polling and provides a result which suggests routing the call to this call center. The ICR Call Control Application (CCA) launches the Walt Treatment Application (WTA) and routes the call.
B. The ICR Core performs polling and provides a result which suggests that the agent is not available. The ICR CCA launches the Generic Error Handling Application (EHA).
C. The ICR Core performs polling and provides a result which suggests that the agent is not
D. The ICR Core performs polling and provides a result which suggests that the agent is not available. The ICR CCA launches the Non Business Hours Application.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
In the intelligent customer routing (ICR) deployment, the standard ICR CCA session Detail Report (SDR) is shown below. What is an accurate explanation of this SDR report?
A. The call was initially queued on [email protected] where due to SIP ERROR the call got requeued [email protected]. The call then observed a spike in Estimated Wait Time (EWT) and it was re-queued [email protected].
B. The call was initially queued on [email protected] where due to SIP ERROR the call got requeued to [email protected]. The call then observed a spike in EWT and it was re-queued 920l4.aicr.com.
C. The call was initially queued on 70001 a icr.com where due to spike in EWT the call got requeued to 82003 a cr.com. The call then observed SIP ERROR and it was re-queued [email protected].
D. The call was initially queued on 82003aicr.com where due to spike in EWT the call got requeued to [email protected] The call then observed SIP ERROR and it was re-queued [email protected].
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
A technician has upgraded the Primary Experience Portal Manager (EPM) and finds that the Auxiliary I I'M |is no longer able to communicate with it. Which corrective action should be taken?
A. Restart httpd on the Auxiliary EPM.
B. Log into Linux on the Media Processing Platforms (MPPs) and run bash setup_vpms.php <Auxiliary EPM>
C. Log into Linux on the MPPs and run bash setup_vpms.php <Primary EPM>
D. Upgrade the Auxiliary EPM.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which two user roles can be used to add, change, or delete the Intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) Control Application on the Experience Portal Manager? (Choose two)
A. Administration
B. Web Services
C. Maintenance
D. Operations
E. ICR Administrator
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer creates a campaign but it is failing to start. Which two logs should be checked for possible error messages? (Choose two)
A. $POM__HOME/logs/PIM _CmpMgr.log* log files
B. $POM_HOME/logs/PIM_CmpDir.log* log files
C. $POM _HOME/logs/PIM_Web.log log*files
D. $POM_.HOME/logs/CmpMgrService.out* log files
E. $POM_HOME/logs/CmpDirService.out* log files
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 6
A/hen configuring a scheduled report on the Avaya tie types may be selected? (Choose three)
A. .doc (Microsoft Word)
B. .xls (Microsoft Excel)
C. .pdf (Portable Document Format)
D. .jpg (Digital Image)
E. .csv (Comma separated value)
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 7
Your client reported they were monitoring a campaign for Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) from the Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAI P) Web Administration POM Monitor screen and they
observed a message "Resource temporarily Unavailable." Which two steps would you take to identity the cause of this message? (Choose two)
A. Verify that the Media Processing Platform (MPP) is operational
B. Verify that the text-to Speech (TTS) Speech Server is working and is licensed correctly
C. Verify that the Experience Portal Manager (EPM) can communicate with the Avaya Aura
Communication Manager (AACM)
D. Verify that the WebLM license is not expired arid verify if you have configured the required number
E. Verify that the Short Message Service (SMS) server is not down.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 8
You have received alarm event "QSYSM00056 MPP disk use (85% percent) has exceeded the configured low threshold of 80 percent" on your co-resident Avaya Aura Experience Portal server.
You login to the server and run the below Red Hat administrative command to review disk space
usage: [scroot@vp-a1/] # -b – – max – depth = 1 – h/
20K /mnt
12M /tmp
10.8G/home
5.9M /bin
24K /root
91.3G /opt
85G /var
16G /
Which three folders are most likely to contain files which can be deleted to make room on the server disk? (Choose three)
A. /var/llb/pgsql/data
B. /home
C. /var/spool/mail
D. /opt/Avaya/InstallAgent/download
E. /opt.Tomcat/apache-tomcat-6.0.32/webapps
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 9
A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal 5.x to Avaya Aura Experience Portal 6.0, hut the license not upgraded.
What is the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
A customer has installed Avaya Aura Experience Portal, but no port was specified in the configuration the WebLM server.
What is the default port used by the WebLM server?
A. 443
B. 8443
C. 8080
D. 28443
Answer: B

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Avaya ACSS 3304 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Call Center Elite Implementation and Maintenance Exam: 3304 Exam

  • 3304 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 3304
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Call Center Elite Implementation and Maintenance Exam
  • Q & A: 77 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements describe the benefits of the Business Advocate (BA) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It enablesrouting of calls to the agent that is most idle.
B. It dynamically matches a customer to an optimal agent.
C. It provides conditional routing of calls to agent queues.
D. It allows for dynamic reporting of call center activities in custom methods.
E. It uses advanced algorithms to efficiently route calls to agents.
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 2
What are three added features when you upgrade form Basic Avaya Call Center to Avaya Call Center Elite? (Choose three.)
A. Service Level Maximize
B. Advocate
C. Hunt Group
D. Call Management System (CMS)
E. Agent Selection (EAS)
Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 3
A supervisor wants to endure that a specified group of agents logout at a specified time during the work week. How can this be accomplished?
A. with After Call Work (ACW) Agent Considered Idle
B. with Forced Agent Logout Time
C. with Interruptible Aux Notification Timer (sec)
D. with Maximum Time Agent in ACW before logout (sec)
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
A customer has Business Advocate (BA) features turned on.
Which technique can be used to protect the predetermined level of service to a valued skill, II volumes or agent staffing levels change abruptly?
A. queue priority levels
B. reserve agents
C. skill preference levels
D. percent allocation
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
A call center operations manager wants agents to manually enter a code to identify the reason for being in auxiliary (AUX) work status.
Which feature must be activated on the system-parameters custom-options to allow this?
A. Call Work Codes
B. Authorization Codes
C. Reason Codes
D. AUX State Codes
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which three statements about circular hunt groups are true? (Choose three)
A. The next call to the hunt group is offered to the next station in the members list in a round robin fashion, starting with the first administered station.
B. The call distribution is dependent of how long stations have been idle.
C. The call distribution is independent of how long stations have been idle.
D. The next tall to the hunt group will be routed to the next agent (station) if the previous agent did not answer the last call.
E. The next call to the hunt-group will be routed to the same agent (station) if that agent did not answer the last call.
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 7
A supervisor would like to have their agents automatically log out at a specific time.
Which administration form is used to configure this functionality?
A. Hunt Group Form
B. Agent LoginID Form
C. Feature-Related System-Parameters Form
D. Station Form
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
While configuring the Service Observing feature, which three forms should be configured and/or verified?
A. System Parameters
B. Class of Service
C. Feature-Related System Parameters
D. Class of restriction
E. Station
Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION NO: 9
Which three monitor commands are available with Basic Call Management System (BCMS)? (Choose three)
A. Monitor bcms agent
B. Monitor bcms skill
C. Monitor bcms split
D. Monitor bcms system
E. Monitor bcms vector
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 10
What provides built-in real and historical reporting capabilities for the call center, including reports for Splits/Skill, Agents, Vector Directory Numbers (VDNs) and trunk groups?
A. VvStats
B. Service level maximize (SLM)
C. Basic Call management System (BCMS)
D. Automated Number Identification (ANI)
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 11
A customer wants the ability to track the call types for Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) calls answered by agents. These call types will be defined by the customer.
Which call feature can the customer use to track their defined call types?
A. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
B. Call Work Codes (CWC)
C. Feature Access Codes (FAC)
D. Redistribution on No Answer (RONA)
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12
You are implementing a new contact center and gathering all information for the new agents. The Communication manager (CM) Agent Login ID form is populated from information gathered on the Agent Skills Worksheet.
Which three items are included on this worksheet? (Choose three)
A. Call handling preference
B. Login ID
C. Skill preferences
D. Skill level
E. Class of service (COS)
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 13
Which vector object can replace the Time of Day (TOD) global Vector Variable?
A. Business Schedule Table
B. Vector Routing Table
C. Service Hours Table
D. Policy Routing Table
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
The first administered extensions in the hunt-group screen is usually serving a call, and is often referred to as ‘hot seat’.
What is the name of this call distribution method?
A. circ
B. ead-mia
C. ucd-loa
D. ddc
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 15
A customer has Elite Call Center package and wants Basic Call Management System (BCMS) for reports. Which statement is true about this scenario?
A. BCMS has all the functions Call Management System (CMS) supports but with less capacity.
B. BCMS generates Split Reports and not Skills Reports.
C. BCMS does not support all Call Center Elite features
D. BCMS is only offered for Customers with a Basic Call Center package.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 16
Improve call handling and agent productivity you set up a vector using Look Ahead Interflow to check id site can accept a call and has an agent available. You only want to Interflow calls that are
at the top two positions of the queue. Which command would be entered in the vector to accomplish this?
A. route-to number 9581234 with cov y if interflow – qpos = 2
B. route-to number 9581234 with cov n if interflow – qpos <= 2
C. route-to number 9581234 with cov n if interflow – qpos < 2
D. route-to number 9581234 with cov y if interflow – qpos <= 2
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 17
A situation has come up where it is necessary to have more than one service observer active against a Vector Directory Number (VDN).
Which two parameters are necessary to make that happen? (Choose two.)
A. Allow Two Observers in Same Call
B. Service Observing /SSC Allowed with Exclusion
C. Service Level Maximizer
D. serviceobserving(VDN
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 18
A customer wants to routinely monitor their vectors for unexpected results.
How would they monitor their results?
A. In the Communication Manage (CM), use the list history command.
B. In the CM, use the display events command.
C. In Call Management System (CMS), use the System Maintenance > Reports > Error Log
Report
D. In CMS, use the Exceptions > Reports > Vector Exceptions.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 19
While configuring a vector using the best Service Routing feature, the installer was not able to use the consider location command.
Why did the installer encounter this feature?
A. The Best Service Routing feature was not enabled on the Feature-Related System Parameters form.
B. Look Ahead Interflow (LAI) was not enabled on the System-Parameters Customer Options form
C. Expert Agent Selection (EAS) was not enabled on the Feature-Related System Parameters form.
D. Preference Handling Distribution (FAS-PHD) was not enabled on the System-Parameters Customer-Options form.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 20
Which two Vector Directory Number (VDN) parameters are associated with the active VDN? (Choose two)
A. Class of Restriction (COR)
B. Tenant Number (TN)
C. Class of Services (COS)
D. Measured
E. VDN Skill
Answer: B,E

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Avaya ACSS 3301 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Contact Center Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam: ACSS 3301 Exam

  • 3301 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 3301
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Center Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam
  • Q & A: 56 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
What is the update frequency of the Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) Dashboard?
A. The Dashboard refreshes every 5 seconds.
B. The Dashboard refreshes every 10 seconds by default.
C. The Dashboard refresh rate is configurable from 1-360 seconds.
D. The Dashboard update requires clicking on the Refresh button.
E. The Dashboard update requires clicking on the Update button.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
When attempting to log on to Contact Center Manager Administrator (CCMA) for the first time using internet Explorer 7.0, a new supervisor sees the message "ERROR:UNKNOWN!" on the login page. None the other supervisors report the issue, and you have logged onto CCMA yourself with the "webadmin" account and verified that it is functioning normally.
What is causing this problem and how should it be corrected?
A. The CCMA server does not have a Windows Language Pack installed for the language assigned to the supervisor's account in Access and Partition Management. You must either install
the appropriate language pack or change the supervisor's language to a language that does have Windows language pack installed.
B. The supervisor is connecting to the CCMA website while logged into the computer as a nondomain user. You must update the Anonymous access configuration for the default website to use the "IUSR_SWC" credentials or ensure that all supervisors only use domain accounts when accessing CCMA.
C. The character encoding is set to an incorrect value in the supervisor's web browser. Set the encoding in Internet Explorer to "Western European" and then reload the website.
D. The URL for the CCMA server has not been added to the list of Trusted Sites in the supervisor's web browser. Add the CCMA URL to the list of Trusted Sites, then restart Internet Explorer and reconnect to the website.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two visualization technologies are supported for Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC)? (Choose two.)
A. VMWare vSphere 3.0
B. VMWare vSphere 4.0
C. Microsoft Hyper-V
D. Microsoft Virtual Server
E. XenSecure Xen 3.1.2
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 4
Which Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) historical report contains the time of arrival, Automatic Number Identification (ANI), answering agent, and final disposition for individual calls?
A. Contacts Details report
B. Contacts Received by Skillset report
C. Contact Summary report
D. Contact Treatment report
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
When initiating a simple SIP call, the SIP architecture uses an INVIII method message.
Which two fields would you examine to determine that an INVITE message was initiated when tracing a SIP call?
A. Call-ID:, Contact:
B. Request:, Cseq:
C. Via:, To:
D. Contact:, Cseq:
E. Request:, To:
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) deployment, which component supplies call treatment and call progress tones to external callers?
A. Avaya Media Server
B. Contact Center Media Services
C. Session Manager
D. SIP Gateway Manager
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
You have downloaded a new Quick Fix Engineering (QEF) patch for the Avaya Media Server (Avaya MS). You must install the QEF patch on the Avaya MS server.
What is used to install QFE patches on the Avaya MS?
A. the System Configuration > Software Update page in the Avaya MS Element Manager
B. the Patch Manager on the Avaya MS server
C. the maspatch command-line utility on the Avaya MS server
D. the syspatch command-line utility on the Avaya MS server
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8
You are unable to access the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) Web Administration tool.
When you click on the link in Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA), your Web browser displays the message "Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage."
What should you do next to begin troubleshooting the issue?
A. Start the CCTOMCATSRV service on the CCT server.
B. Verify that the port number configured for the CCT server in CCMA is set to 8443.
C. Ensure that IIS is properly installed and configured on the CCT server.
D. Ensure that the SSL certificate issued to the CCT server is installed on the CCMA server.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
Real-time displays on a standalone Contract Center manager Administration (CCMA) are not being updated with data. You suspect that the CCMA server is not receiving real-time data from
the Contact Center Server (CCMS).
Which tool on the CCMA server can he used to determine whether real time data is being received from CCMS?
A. mRcv.exe
B. RTR Monitor from the CCMA Configuration utility
C. iceRTDTrace.exe
D. mCast.exe
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10
In a SIP environment, which component of Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) performs call processing?
A. .NET
B. SIP Computer Telephony Integration (CTI)
C. SIP Gateway Manager
D. SIP Proxy Server
E. SIP Redirect Server
Answer: B

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Avaya ACSS 3300 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Contact Center Administration Exam: ACSS 3300 Exam

  • 3300 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 3300
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Center Administration Exam
  • Q & A: 62 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
An agent In Avaya Aura Contact Center steps away from the phoneset without logging out or going into Not Ready- Upon return. It is discovered that the telephone has been logged out.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The "Longest Idle since Last ACD/CDN" calls expired, logging out the telephone.
B. The Call Presentation Class "Return To Queue" was enabled for this telephone, a call was presented and returned to the queue while the agent was away and the Logout option was assigned for After "Return to Queue, Make Phone set".
C. The Call Presentation Class "After Call Break for N seconds" was enabled for this telephone, and the telephone was forced logged out.
D. The "Longest Idle since Login" expired, logging out the telephone.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
A supervisor with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to setup a requirement for the Calls Waiting column on a Sklllset Display to update in yellow when three or four calls are in queue, and red when five or more calls are in queue for the Customer Service Sklllset.
Which three areas of Contact Center Administration must be configured to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a Sklllset Threshold Class, assign 3 to Level 1, and 5 to Level 2 for Calls Waiting.
B. Open a Standard Skillset Display, assign yellow highlighting to level 1 of the Calls Waiting column, and red to level 2 of the Calls Waiting column,
C. Assign Sklllset Threshold Class to Customer Service Skillset.
D. Create a custom formula for Calls Waiting.
E. Create a custom Skillset Display, assign yellow highlighting to level 1 of the Calls Waiting column, and red to level 2 of the Calls Waiting column.
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 3
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has created a script application. The customer would like to convert this script application into a flow application.
Which two statements regarding converting scripts are true? (Choose two.)
A. The original script application must be In the Contact Center View.
B. The original script application must be In the Local View.
C. The conversion of the script to a flow results in only one APPLICATION, the flow version.
D. The conversion of a script to a flow results in two scripts, the original script version and the new flow version.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 4
A supervisor In an Avaya Aura Contact Center SIP environment would like to play an announcement and collect digits from a caller using the following TFE command:
GIVE IVR WITH VXML TREATMENT voicexml PARAMETERS What are two Inputs after the PARAMETERS command? (Choose two.)
A. prompttoplay
B. _c_play_and_collect
C. GIVE IVR WITH VXML TREATMENT
D. Numberofdigits
E. ASSIGN "please enter account number.wav"
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center requires a real time report that will show up to 15 minutes of real time data on the screen, allowing the supervisor to identify trends as they emerge.
Which Real Time Display would accomplish this?
A. Agent Map
B. Billboard Collection
C. Interval to Date Display
D. Time Line Display
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
A customer would like incoming calls to queue to the skillset with the most agents in service.
Which intrinsic would accomplish this?
A. MOST LOGGED AGENTS
B. OLDEST
C. LOGGED OUT AGENT
D. LOGGED AGENT COUNT
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center Manager Server would like to view the differences between the data In the Local View and the data In the Contact Center View, and then resolve the differences so that both views contain the same data.
Which view enables this feature?
A. Problems View
B. Synchronization View
C. Comparison View
D. Editor View
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to create a script In the Local View. Which three statements are true regarding the Local View? (Choose three.)
A. The Local View can be populated with Contact Center View data.
B. Application Manager Data added to the Local View is automatically updated in the Contact Center View.
C. The Local View can be launched as a stand-alone option from an executable on a user's machine.
D. By default, when the Local View is initially opened it includes the same data as the Contact
Center View.
E. New applications created In the Local View may be added to the Contact Center View using the Synchronization View.
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 9
When using a host block within a call flow, what does the Provider ID value refer to?
A. This is the HDX Connection Provider ID set within the database integration wizard.
B. This Is the SQL Statement ID set within the database integration wizard.
C. This is the license identifier of the Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) base Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license.
D. This is the caller's telephone number.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center needs to create a new Contact Center Supervisor who will also be an Administrative User.
Which field on the Supervisor Definition page must be completed to simultaneously create a supervisor and an Administrative User?
A. User type
B. Login ID
C. Create CCT Agent
D. CCMA Login Account Details
Answer: D

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Avaya 3203 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Messaging Implementation and Maintenance Exam: 3203 Exam

  • 3203 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 3203
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Messaging Implementation and Maintenance Exam
  • Q & A: 81 Q&As

1.On which two virtual servers do we install the WebLM license file received from the Avaya licensing and Delivery System (PLDS)? (Choose two.)
A. on the Console Domain Network Configuration (cdom) of the Storage Server
B. on the System Domain (Domain 0) on all of the application only servers
C. on cdom of the Single Server
D. on the System Domain (Domain-0) on any one of the application servers
E. on Avaya Aura Messaging on the first application server in the Domain
Answer: A,C

2.Which type of data do you need to enter in the Connection field of the SIP specific configuration.?
A. Thefully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of the far end switch.
B. The hostname followed by the port of the far-end switch.
C. theIP address and port of the far end switch.
D. theFQDN and port of far end switch.
Answer: C

3.Where do you define topology properties for an Avaya Aura Messaging system?
A. on the storage server, which then applies them to the associated Application servers
B. on the Application server, which then applies them to the associated Storage server
C. on both the Application server and the associated Storage server
D. on each Application Server of a cluster and on the associated Storage server
Answer: A

4.What is Avaya's recommended order when upgrading servers in a multi-server deployment?
A. Always upgrade the Storage server first and then the application servers.
B. Always upgrade the application servers in the deployment first and then the other
C. Servers can be upgraded in any sequence.
D. All servers can be upgraded simultaneously.
Answer: A

5.A user was unable to login yesterday but can login today. The user does not remember the exact details but may have received a timeout or an invalid password.
If the user is unable to login again, which two actions should you perform to troubleshoot this situation? (Choose two.)
A. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Messaging Administration > Messaging System (Storage) > User Management and review the User properties.
B. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Messaging Administration > Messaging System (Storage) > User Activity Log Configuration and ensure that Activity Log Enabled is set to yes.
C. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Diagnostics > Diagnostics (Application) and make a test call to that specific User.
D. On the Administration menu, click Messaging > Logs > User Activity, and review the Subscriber Activity log for a specified timeframe.
Answer: B,D

6.A manager claims that mailbox 5608 is dormant and has not being used for more than 30 days. Where would you verify this information?
A. the application server
B. the Users and Uninitialized Mailboxes reports
C. the Uninitialized Mailboxes report
D. the User Activity log
Answer: D

7.A user has a completely functional Avaya Aura Messaging mailbox arid the Message Waiting Indicator (MWI) light is working. The user informs you that text notifications are not being received on the cell phone. You log on to the system and see that text notification has been set up correctly on I user preferences page.
What can you do to test the connectivity to the user's cell phone service provider?
A. Use the SMS Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
B. Use the SMTP Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
C. Use the POP3 Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
D. Use the Mail Delivery diagnostic from Messaging SMI.
Answer: D

8.The WebLM server controls the use and access of Avaya Aura Messaging features through licenses which must be purchased including the number of Avaya Aura Messaging enabled mailboxes the customer wants to us.
Which two statements are accurate regarding licensing the Avaya Aura Messaging system? (Choose two.)
A. A license can be created by Avaya Backbone support; in the event that the permanent license has not yet been issued; this temporary license will expire in 30 days.
B. The license is created based on the Host ID of the Storage Server.
C. Avaya technicians and Business Partners connect to the Avaya support site and Product Licensing and Delivery System (PLDS) to order and retrieve the license file dining installation of theserver.
D. An enterprise license allows the same license to be shared with multiple Messaging systems within an organization.
E. User mailbox count can only be changed through PLDS either by purchasing additional seats or moving seats between licenses.
Answer: B,D

9.An end user has a completely functional mailbox but complains that when using Notify Me to Phone is configured with a long distance number, calls are not received. The user is one of a group of users will this problem. Other users can use long distance numbers for their Notify Me to Phone numbers successfully.
Your testing reveals that the problem is exactly as described using the same long distant number; one user successfully uses Notify Me to Phone and a non working user cannot.
What is causing the problem?
A. The non working users class of service does not allow long distance dialing from the system.
B. The non working users mailbox configuration is set to disallow long distance dialing from the system.
C. Dialing rules have been configured incorrectly for the system.
D. The non working users do not have extensions that are configured in the switch.
Answer: A

10.An end user has a completely functional mailbox but complains that when using Notify Me to phone is configured with a long distance number, calls are not received. The user is one of the groups of users with this problem. Other users can use long distance numbers for their Notify Me to Phone number successfully. Your testing reveals that the problem is exactly as described using the same long distance number; one user successfully uses Notify Me to Phone and a non working user cannot. What is causing the problem?
A. The non working users class of service does not allow long distance dialing from the system.
B. The non working users mailbox configuration is set to disallow long distance dialing from system.
C. Dialing rules have been configured incorrectly for the system.
D. The non working users do not have extensions that are configured in the switch.
Answer: A

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Avaya 3200 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam: 3200 Exam

  • 3200 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 3200
  • Exam Name: Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam
  • Q & A: 65 Q&As

QUESTION 1
A technician is installing Outlook Thick Client (OIC).
Which ports on the network need to be opened to allow communications to the Modular Messaging system?

A.    Ports 21 or 23
B.    Ports 21 and 443
C.    Ports 25, 143, and 389
D.    Ports 25, 143, and 5001

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A technician is installing a service park on a Modular Messaging Single Server. The technician has copied the updates to the server using the System Platform.
In which folder on the Messaging Application Server (MAS) will the technician find the updates?

A.    C:\Avaya_ Support\Updates
B.    C:\Avaya Modular Messaging\Patch Cache
C.    C:\Important_Files
D.    C:\MM_PATCH_FILES

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A technician is installing a now Avaya Modular Messaging 5.2 Single Server. The customer wants to include a Web Client server in the installation.
Which two statements about the Web Client are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Web Client can be installed on a separate server from Avaya Modular Messaging.
B.    Web Client can be installed as a virtual machine on the System Platform Server.
C.    Web Client is not supported by Avaya Modular Messaging 5.2 Single Server.
D.    Web Client software should be installed on the Message Application
machine.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
When considering password security, mailbox passwords can be required to have a specific length. What is the default minimum subscriber password length, and what is the maximum length the word can be set to?

A.    Default 6; Maximum 10
B.    Default 6; Maximum 20
C.    Default 4; Maximum l5
D.    Default 4; Maximum 10
E.    Default 5; Maximum 10

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which three are steps to finish Message Storage Server (MSS) administration? (Choose three.)

A.    Administer Classes of Service (CoS).
B.    Enter the final IP addresses.
C.    Administer switch integration.
D.    Place the MSS in a Windows domain.
E.    Administer special mailboxes.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would like to restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to restoring their data in this manner?

A.    Stop the voice system processing.
B.    Install the latest service pack and patches.
C.    Administer the TCP/IP settings
D.    Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three are pre installation tasks that Avaya recommends for the initial installation of the Modular Messaging 5.2 system? (Choose three.)

A.    Download the software updates and service packs.
B.    Run the backup and verification tool.
C.    Complete the Data Collection Tool data file.
D.    Acquire the RFA authorization file.
E.    Download the Configuration Notes.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?

A.    Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B.    DVD-RW disk
C.    FTP/SFTP backup
D.    Norton Ghost

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging 5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration? (Choose two.)

A.    the PBX translations
B.    the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C.    the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D.    the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS) NetBIOS name

Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
As part of the initial installation, configuring the "Offline Access" is important in case there is problem with the Message Application Servers (MAS) accessing the Message Storage Server (MSS). At which point in the insinuation process should the "Offline Access" be configured?

A.    when configuring the Web Subscriber options
B.    only after the MSS is configured
C.    when configuring the primary MAS
D.    only after all the MASs are configured

Answer: D

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Avaya 3102 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam: 3102 Exam

  • 3102 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 3102
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam
  • Q & A: 81 Q&As

1.Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main site and Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

2.When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a user name and password.
Which statement best explains why a user name and password are required.?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption process and subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are used to login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and authentication purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation. For system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

3.Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

4.After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data, using which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

5.Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

6.During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that the Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session Manager but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password is valid In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
Answer: D

7.Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system manger? (Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. undefined
Answer: A,C,D

8.A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been asked to apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new Application Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating Application Sequence drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the Berlin location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application Sequence.
Answer: B

9.Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

10.Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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Avaya 3101 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Communication Manager and CM Messaging – Embedded Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam: 3101 Exam

  • 3101 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 3101
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Communication Manager and CM Messaging – Embedded Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam
  • Q & A: 80 Q&As

1.Avaya communication Manager utilizes several timers that facilitate gateway and endpoint recovery when either is disconnected from their respective resources.
Which types of link recovery does Communication Manager Support?
A. H.248 link loss recovery
B. H. 323 link loss recovery
C. Both H.248 and H.323 link loss recoveryNeither
D. Neither H.248 nor H.323 link loss recovery
Answer: A

2.Which two SAT based tools are helpful in diagnosing call setup sequences and processor two.?
A. List trace station/tac/ras command
B. Status media processor hoard
C. mst (Message Sequence Tracecommand
D. status processor -ip-inter face
E. List measurements clan/dsl/a
Answer: A

3.Which document would you use to interpret the information in the exhibit?
A. Communication Manager Alarms
B. Communication Manager procedures
C. Communication Manager server Alarms
D. Communication Manager Denial Event
Answer: A

4.Which command can you use to troubleshoot port network routing/tracing problems to devices greater than six hops away?
A. tracert
B. trace-rout
C. List trace
D. /user/sbin/tracepath6
Answer: B

5.A user is a new employee of ABC Co. and their manager supplies them with 9600 desktop IP telephone and login information and tells the user to plug the cord into the jack near their desk. The user plugs in the telephone, lifts the handset, but there is no dial tone and call cannot be made.
What should the user do? (Choose two)
A. Unplug the telephone and plug it back again.
B. returns the telephone because it is defective
C. Wait for the prompt for the extension number and password
D. Plug the telephone into another jack.
Answer: A,D

6.Telephone bills indicate an unusual level of usage of outbound traffic on the inbound-only trunk. Which command would you use to validate that calls are not being made on the inbound trunk group only?
A. list trace tac
B. List measurement route-pattern
C. List measurementstrunk-group
D. List measurementscall-rate
Answer: D

7.Avaya Aura System Platform (SP) is necessary for all Communication Manager (CM) Release 6.0 and higher.
What procedures do you use to update system platform supporting duplex services without interrupting service?
A. Update SP only on the active side, force a server interchange and update SP on the other side.
B. Update standby SP, set standby CM as active, update other SP and set other CM as standby
C. Update SP only on the active side; the standby side is synchronized automatically.
D. Update both the active and standby SP at the same time.
Answer: B

8.In addition to consulting Avaya Aura Communication Manager Server Alarms (03-602798) for
interpreting the Server Alarms section of the Current Alarms Page as shown In the exhibit, what other information source helps interpret these alarms l
A. Status Summary page (SMI)
B. SAT: display alarms comma
C. Server manufacture s maintenance documentation
D. SAT: display events command
Answer: D

9.In Which three places can you look up the branch gateway firmware version? (Choose three)
A. tem Management Interface (SMI)
B. GUI Device Manage
C. System Access Terminal (SAT)
D. Gateway command line
E. Linux command line
Answer: C,D,E

10.You have activated Outcalllng but it Is sometimes delayed when sending out the notifications. All the outcalling defaults will improve the situation?
Which option will improve this situation?
A. Turn outcalling off and then on again.
B. Restart messaging.
C. Increase the maximum simultaneous ports and used for outcalling
D. Change the outcalling start and end times.
Answer: C

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