Free Download Citrix 1Y0-A05 Exam Questions

Implementing Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008: 1Y0-A05 Exam

  • 1Y0-A05 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 1Y0-A05
  • Exam Name: Implementing Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008
  • Q & A: 217 Q&As

1: Scenario: An administrator determined that an application pilot environment should be installed. Two servers have been allocated for this purpose. How should the pilot environment be established and why?
A.The servers should be placed in a distinct farm so that testing does NOT impact production.
B.The servers should be placed in a distinct zone so that testing does NOT impact production.
C.The servers should be configured based on virtual servers so that scalability data can be derived for physical servers.
D.The servers should be configured to access a distinct license server to prevent impacting license server communications.
Correct Answers: A

2: Scenario: An administrator installed the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool to administer a Citrix XenApp server remotely. The server is accessed through a WAN link and it is behind a firewall. Which TCP port should be opened on the firewall to allow the administrator to connect remotely by means of the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool?
A.1494
B.2512
C.2513
D.2598
Correct Answers: C

3: Scenario: An administrator is in the process of implementing zone preference and failover for a Citrix XenApp farm. The administrator already configured a Citrix policy named "ZPF Policy." Which three filters can the administrator use to apply this policy and implement zone preference and failover? (Choose three.)
A.Users
B.Servers
C.Client Name
D.Access Control
E.Client IP Address
Correct Answers: A C E

4: Session reliability is based on which Citrix service?
A.IMA
B.XML
C.XTE
D.Services Manager
Correct Answers: C

5: An administrator is installing Web Interface in order to support Windows laptop users that require offline applications.Which type of site should the administrator create to support these users?
A.XenApp Web
B.XenApp Services
C.Web Interface for SharePoint
D.XenApp Plugin for Streamed Apps
Correct Answers: B

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Free Download Citrix 1Y0-A18 Exam Questions

Basic Administration for Citrix XenApp 6: 1Y0-A18 Exam

  • 1Y0-A18 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 1Y0-A18
  • Exam Name: Basic Administration for Citrix XenApp 6
  • Q & A: 119 Q&As

1.A zone data collector ___________ . (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. handles ICA traffic for the zone
B. writes information to the data store
C. is responsible for maintaining server load evaluator information
D. makes sure all XML traffic is routed between the servers in the zone
Answer: C

2.Scenario: A company's XenApp farm is spread across four geographically separated datacenters. Each datacenter is its own zone in the farm. Datacenter A contains 50 servers. Datacenter B contains 100 servers. Datacenter C contains 20 servers, and Datacenter D contains 10 servers, one of which is the license server.
Which datacenter would be the appropriate location for the farm's data store.?
A. Datacenter A
B. Datacenter B
C. Datacenter C
D. Datacenter D
Answer: B

3.Which port is used by the Citrix License Administration Console?
A. 2598
B. 7279
C. 8082
D. 27000
Answer: C

4.Scenario: A user successfully launched a published application delivered from a XenApp server running within the user's LAN. Session Reliability has been disabled.
Which port is used for communication between the Citrix online plug-in and the XenApp server?
A. 80
B. 1494
C. 2598
D. 3389
Answer: B

5.Scenario: A user successfully launched a published application through an Access Gateway. The application is delivered from a XenApp server running in the datacenter and Session Reliability has been enabled.
Which port is used for communication between the Access Gateway and the XenApp server?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 1494
D. 2598
Answer: D

6.Which statement best describes the purpose of the data collector?
A. It verifies a user's permissions for the requested application.
B. It is used by the Delivery Services Console to run the farm discovery.
C. It authenticates the user and populates the Web Interface with their icons.
D. It maintains and communicates farm information to data collectors in other zones
Answer: D

7.Scenario: A XenApp farm is located in a datacenter in New York. A request has been made to add a XenApp server in London. The WAN network connection is stable enough to allow the new server to exist in the New York farm.
What should be done by the administrator to ensure that the least amount of Citrix IMA traffic traverses the WAN?
A. The administrator needs to create a new zone and add the new server to that zone, making it the zone data collector.
B. The administrator does not need to create a new zone because Citrix IMA traffic will only originate from the data collector.
C. The administrator does not need to create a new zone if "Not Preferred" is specified as the election preference for the new server.
D. The administrator does not need to create a zone for the new server, but rather create a new farm and link Citrix IMA traffic in the Delivery Center.
Answer: A

8.Which three options can an administrator use to add members to the Remote Desktop Users group during a XenApp installation? (Choose three.)
A. Power Users
B. Domain Users
C. Administrators
D. Anonymous Users
E. Authenticated Users
F. List of users from the Users Group
Answer: DEF

9.Which method can be used when changing the farm membership of a server?
A. Run the QFARM command.
B. Run the CHFARM command.
C. Use XenApp Server Role Manager.
D. Use the Delivery Services Console.
Answer: C

10.Which statement correctly describes behavior of the XenApp Server Role Manager?
A. Remote Desktop Services will be automatically installed. Within the XenApp Server role the online plug-in is automatically installed.
B. Remote Desktop Services will need to be installed separately. Within the XenApp Server role the online plug-in is automatically installed.
C. Remote Desktop Services will be automatically installed. Within the XenApp Server role both the online and offline plug-in are automatically installed.
D. Remote Desktop Services will need to be installed separately. Within the XenApp Server role both the online and offline plug-in are automatically installed.
Answer: C

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Free Download Citrix 1Y0-A20 Exam Questions

Citrix XenApp 6.5 Administration : 1Y0-A20 Exam

  • 1Y0-A20 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 1Y0-A20
  • Exam Name: Citrix XenApp 6.5 Administration
  • Q & A: 116 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for the new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have more than 100 XenApp servers and 500 published resources, support more than 5,000 concurrent users and have two zones separated by a WAN connection.
Which two database options should be administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A.    IBM DB2 9.7
B.    Oracle Enterprise 1.1
C.    Microsoft SQL Server 2008
D.    Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008
Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Scenario: The administrator of a small XenApp server farm has configured end-to-end encryption between the XenApp servers and user devices by setting up Access Gateway VPX. Session Reliability is enabled in the farm with default settings.
Over which port will published applications be delivered?
A.    80
B.    443
C.    1494
D.    2598
Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Scenario: The administrator of a XenApp Enterprise Edition server farm is configuration Single Sign-on for the users of the farm. The Citrix license server was installed with the default vendor daemon and console Web port numbers, but NOT the default license server port number.
Of the port numbers that are in use in the XenApp server farm, which one should the administrator specify for the license server during Single Sign-on configuration?
A.    443
B.    7279
C.    8082
D.    27009
Answer: D

QUESTION 4
In building out a new XenApp environment, an administrator places the Secure Gateway and Web Interface in the DMZ. What must the administrator do to secure the traffic to the XML Broker?
A.    Change the XML traffic port to a non-standard assignment.
B.    Use the SSL Relay tool to encrypt traffic to the XML Broker in the farm.
C.    Place the XML Broker in the DMZ and encrypt the traffic between them.
D.    Use encrypted ICA to communicate between the XML Broker and the Web Interface.
Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An administrator needs to install a XenApp 6.5 server to act as an additional dedicated data collector. After installing XenApp on the new server, the next step is to configure it by enabling the __________.
A.    Session-host mode only
B.    Controller and Session-host modes
C.    data collector and XML Broker host mode
D.    data collector and XTE Service host mode
Answer: C

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Free Download Citrix 1Y0-A14 Exam Questions

Implementing Citrix XenDesktop 3: 1Y0-A14 Exam

  • 1Y0-A14 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 1Y0-A14
  • Exam Name: Implementing Citrix XenDesktop 3
  • Q & A: 78 Q&As

1: Scenario: A user is attempting to access a virtual desktop. Web Interface sent an .ICA file, but an ICA connection failed to establish.
Which component of the XenDesktop architecture has failed to communicate with the virtual desktop?
A.Desktop Receiver
B.Domain Controller
C.Virtual Desktop Agent
D.Desktop Delivery Controller
Correct Answers: A

2: Scenario: A user is attempting to access a virtual desktop provided by Provisioning Services. The Desktop Delivery Controller has requested that the virtual machine infrastructure boot the virtual desktop.
Which step in the desktop delivery process occurs next?
A.The disk image will be streamed to the virtual desktop
B.The Desktop Delivery Controller will query the license server
C.The Profile Management feature will apply user profile settings to the virtual desktop
D.The computer account of the virtual desktop will be created in Microsoft Active Directory
Correct Answers: A

3: Which two components are needed to access a virtual desktop from a remote Macintosh device? (Choose two.)
A.SSH
B.PNAgent
C.Web browser
D.Virtual Desktop Agent
E.Citrix Desktop Receiver
Correct Answers: C E

4: An administrator needs to configure pooled desktops for a large number of users and would like to automate this process.
Which two components can the administrator use to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A.XenCenter
B.Desktop Receiver
C.Virtual Desktop Agent
D.Provisioning Services
E.XenDesktop Setup Wizard
Correct Answers: D E

5: An administrator needs to create virtual desktops for a large XenDesktop implementation.
Which component can the administrator use to automate this process?
A.Virtual Desktop Agent
B.XenDesktop Setup Wizard
C.Presentation Server Console
D.Active Directory Configuration Wizard
Correct Answers: B

6: Which issue can the Profile Management feature address in a XenDesktop implementation?
A.Ability of users to switch between multiple profiles
B.Profile bloat because extraneous files are copied to the profile
C.Printing failure because printer properties are not updated at each logon
D.Inability to connect to a virtual desktop because it is listed as Not Registered
Correct Answers: B

7: Which two .MSI files does an administrator need to install on user endpoint devices so that they work as domain-joined repurposed PCs? (Choose two.)
A.UserProfileManager.MSI
B.VirtualDesktopAgent.MSI
C.DesktopReceiverFull.MSI
D.DesktopApplianceLock.MSI
Correct Answers: C D

8: Which task must an administrator perform to prepare a Linux-based desktop appliance for connection with a virtual desktop?
A.Install Virtual Desktop Agent
B.Set up local Linux user accounts
C.Install the Profile Management feature
D.Configure a URL to connect to Web Interface
Correct Answers: D

9: Which component of the XenDesktop architecture uses Microsoft Active Directory to find the controllers that constitute a farm?
A.Data Store
B.Desktop Receiver
C.Virtual Desktop Agent
D.Desktop Delivery Controller
Correct Answers: C

10: What is the role of a DHCP server in a XenDesktop environment?
A.Assigns an IP address to a virtual machine upon startup
B.Sends the boot server host name to the vDisks in the farm
C.Sends the boot file name to the Desktop Receiver upon startup
D.Assigns MAC addresses to virtual desktops when they are created
Correct Answers: A

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Free Download 10g OCM Oracle Database 10g Administrator Certified Master Exam Dumps

Duration: 2 Days

First Day:

Section 0:

Create the Database

45 Minutes

Section 1:

Database and Network Configuration

120 Minutes

Section 2:

Grid Control Installation and Configuration

120 Minutes

Section 3:

Database Backup and Recovery

60 Minutes

Section 4:

Data Warehouse Management

90 Minutes

Second Day:

Section 5:

Database Management

120 Minutes

Section 6:

Database Performance Management

120 Minutes

Section 7:

Oracle RAC Database Deployment

105 Minutes

Section 8:

Data Guard Deployment

60 Minutes

NOTE: The exam starts promptly at 9:00 AM. Plan on finishing no sooner than 6:00 PM. Late arrivals are not guaranteed entry but may be accommodated at the sole discretion of the proctor.

Plan your travel schedule accordingly to ensure enough time to work through each scenario. Participants are not permitted to enter or leave the classroom once a skillset has started; they must wait until the next skillset.

Scoring

Participants are scored on their ability to complete assigned tasks and to recover from various database failure scenarios. Data from each participant’s environment is collected at the end of each scenario and used to determine the final score. In some scenarios, participants may receive partial credit, however the inability to recover from a failure scenario results in zero credit for an entire scenario. The proctor is not responsible for scoring the exam and will not have scoring information during the event.

Participants will be notified of their final score 4 – 5 weeks following the exam. Upon attaining a successful score, a participant is awarded the Oracle Certified Master credential. Participants who do not earn a passing score are required to retake the entire exam at a later date.

Section 0: Create the Database *45 Minutes

1. Database Setup and Undo Management

1.1 Run the minimum required scripts to complete the basic configuration of the PROD database.

1.2 Set up automatic undo management in the PROD database to support the following requirements:

1.2.1 Avoid ORA-01555 Snapshot too old errors for queries running up to 90 minutes on average.

1.2.2 The number or concurrent OLTP users will be approximately 120 during normal business hours.

1.2.3 The number or concurrent batch processes that will run in the evenings and weekends will approximately 12 to 15

****

1. vi .bash_profile

export ORACLE_SID=prod

export EDITOR=vi

2. vi /etc/oratab

prod:/u01/app/oracle/OracleHomes/db10g:N

3. create initPROD.ora

cat init.ora |grep –v ^# |grep –v ^$ > initprod.ora

——————-

db_name=prod

db_block_size=8192

compatible=’10.2.0.1.0’

sga_max_size=300m

sga_target=300m

log_buffer=524288

processes=250

control_files=(/u01/app/oracle/oradata/PROD/Disk1/ctrl1.ctl,

/u01/app/oracle/oradata/PROD/Disk2/ctrl2.ctl,/u01/app/oracle/oradata/PROD/Disk3/ctrl3.ctl)

audit_file_dest=’ /u01/app/oracle/admin/PROD/adump’

background_dump_dest=’ /u01/app/oracle/admin/PROD/bdump’

core_dump_dest=’ /u01/app/oracle/admin/PROD/cdump’

user_dump_dest=’ /u01/app/oracle/admin/PROD/udump’

undo_management=AUTO

See more from Full Version please visit http://www.lead2pass.com/10g-ocm.html

Free Download Citrix 1Y0-A17 Exam Questions

Implementing Citrix XenDesktop 4: 1Y0-A17 Exam

  • 1Y0-A17 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 1Y0-A17
  • Exam Name: Implementing Citrix XenDesktop 4
  • Q & A: 70 Q&As

1. What is the role of the pool management service?
A. Clones virtual machines
B. Turns virtual machines on and off
C. Streams the virtual machine to the users
D. Assigns users to the correct virtual machine
Answer: B

2. Which component of the XenDesktop architecture uses Microsoft Active Directory,to find the controllers that constitute a farm?
A. Desktop Receiver
B. Domain Controller
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: C

3. An administrator needs to allow each help desk worker in an environment access to one virtual desktop
Which two types of devices should the administrator configure to allow each help desk worker to connect to a virtual desktop? (Choose two)
A. Thin clients
B. Fat client devices
C. Remote computers
D. Repurposed computers
Answer: BD

4. An administrator needs to configure pooled desktops for a large number of users and would like to automate this process. To complete this task the administrator will need to use ___________ and ___________ (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence)
A. XenServer
B. XenCenter
C. Provisioning Services
D. XenDesktop Setup Wizard
E. Delivery Services console
Answer: CD

5. A user needs to access a virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop on the corporate network for the first time Click the Task button to place the steps to access the virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop in the correct order Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item? What is the correct order of steps to access the virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop?
 
Answer:
1 Connect the Macintosh laptop to the corporate network
2 Connect to the internal Web Interface site
3 Enter the Web Interface user credentials
4 Download Desktop Receiver from the web interface
5 Automatically connect to the assigned desktop

6. Scenario: a user is attempting to access a virtual desktop The Web interface sent an .ICA file,but no ICA. connection was established. Which component of the XenDeskop architecture has failed to communicate with the virtual desktop?
A. Data Store
B. Desktop Receiver
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: B

7. Which component of the XenDeskop architecture has failed to communicate with the virtual desktop?
Which issue can the Profile Management feature address in a XenDesktop implementation?
A. Inability of users to stch between multiple profiles
B. Inability of settings to be saved against mandatory profiles
C. Profile bloat because extraneous files are copied to the profile
D. Printing failure because printer properties are not updated at each logon
Answer: C

8. A user is attempting to access a virtual desktop remotely Click the Task button to place the steps in the desktop delivery process in the correct order Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item? What is the correct order of steps in the desktop delivery process?
 
Answer:
1 The users logs on the web site
2 The desktop delivery controller determines which desktop to give to the user
3 The web site sends an ICA file to the Desktop Receiver
4 The Desktop Receiver initiates a connection to the Virtual Desktop Agent
5 The virtual desktop is presented to the user

9. An administrator needs to configure existing hardware that will be repurposed to support connections to virtual desktops. How should the administrator allow users to connect to their desktops in this environment?
A. Using domain-joined Windows XP Embedded on a LAN and connecting through a XenDesktop Ser4lces site to a virtual desktop in full-screen-only mode
B. Using a Windows XP device on a LAN and connecting through a XenDesktop Web site to a virtual desktop with a Citrix Desktop Receiver window and a toolbar
C. Using a non-domain-joined Windows XP Embedded device on a LAN and connecting through a Desktop Appliance Connector site to a virtual desktop in full-screen-only mode
D. Using a Windows XP device that connects remotely using Access Gateway through a XenDesktop Web site to a virtual desktop with a Citrix Desktop Receiver window and a toolbar
Answer: A

10. An administrator changed the settings on the Desktop Delivery Controller so that it uses an assigned static IP address instead of DHCP.Which result,when verified by the administrator,shows that the change has been made and ensures that the virtual machines can successfully register?
A. The firewall ports have been changed
B. The Farm GUID has been added to the registry
C. The DNS has been updated with the new IP address
D. The Desktop Delivery Controller Service has been restarted
Answer: C

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Free Download Citrix 1Y0-A19 Exam Questions

Citrix XenDesktop 5 Administration: 1Y0-A19 Exam

  • 1Y0-A19 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 1Y0-A19
  • Exam Name: Citrix XenDesktop 5 Administration
  • Q & A: 97 Q&As

1.Scenario: A customer needs to configure a XenDesktop environment so that an end user has the best experience when launching a virtual desktop. The environment needs to be configured with fault tolerance so that when a XenServer goes down for maintenance the target device can still be deployed by any XenServer with the least loaD. Currently, the customer has a XenServer pool consisting of 16 XenServer hosts with 8 GB of memory and a 2 TB SATA hard disk A 2 TB Fibre Channel Storage Area Network is attached to the XenServer. The Provisioning services host is configured on a stand-alone server with 8 GB of memory and three 500 GB SCSI hard disks configured as a RAID 5 configuration.
What is the best write caching method for deploying 800 target devices within a XenServer pool?
A. Cache on the target device and redirect to the RAM of the target device.
B. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on the local file system.
C. Cache on the target device and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage repository.
D. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage repository.
Answer: C

2.In a Provisioning services environment, what is the default location of the write cache if no location is specified manually.?
A. RAM of the target device
B. Local drive of the target device
C. A subdirectory m the vDisk location
D. A subdirectory in the default Provisioning services installation path
Answer: C

3.An administrator is planning a XenDestop 5 Quick Deploy to demonstrate superior end user experience.
What would be considered when planning the Quick Deploy?
A. SQL Sewer 2008 R2 should first be instated and configured on the server that will run the Controller.
B. The SQL Server 2005 database for the XenDesktop site should be located on the same subnet as the Controller.
C. The hypervisor should on the same subnet as the SQL Server 2008 R2 database for the XenDesktop site.
D. SQL Express 2008 R2 should be installed as a prerequisite on the Controller running Microsoft Windows Server 2008.
Answer: A

4.Scenario: A company has two sites about 3000 miles apart, one in New York and the other in Los Angeles. Each site has 1500 users. XenDesktop site access must be available for all the users at both locations. High availability is required so no single port of failure is acceptable.
A minimum of _______XenDesktop Controller(s) and _________Provisioning services host(s) are necessary to support all 3000 users given the requirements. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 1,1
B. 2,2
C. 3,3
D. 4,4
Answer: B

5.According to Citrix best practices, which storage type should an administrator use to set up a
XenDesktop environment using XenServer?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. NTFS
D. Clustered Shared Volume
Answer: A

6.Which three storage types can XenServer use for the virtual machine disks if migrating virtual machines without downtime is required? (Choose three)
A. CSV
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. Local Disk
E. Fibre Channel
Answer: B,C,E

8.An administrator needs to configure port exceptions to allow the collection of Windows metrics using the Windows Remote Management 2.0 service. Which port must the administrator allow for this environment?
A. 1494
B. 3389
C. 4752
D. 5985
Answer: D

9.Scenario: An administrator configured a master virtual machine and created a pooled catalog with a desktop group. The administrator discovered that antivirus software was not installed on the master virtual machine.
How would the administrator update the image pool to include antivirus software for the pooled desktops with the least amount of administrative effort? A. Recreate the master virtual machine and install the antivirus software.
B. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, then update the catalog
C. Convert the master virtual machine to a template and install antivirus software on the template.
D. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, take a snapshot of the virtual machine and assign the snapshot to the catalog
Answer: C

10.When installing XenDesktop5 using the Quick Deploy method, ___________ (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. all of the components must be installed on the same server
B. the master virtual machine must be running on XenServer 5.5 or higher
C. the master virtual machine must be a member of the same domain as the Controller
D. all of the components that need to be installed are the XenDesktop Controller, Desktop Studio and the license server
Answer: A

11.When too pieces of information must be supplied to install Proponing series and connect to a SQL Express database? (Choose two.)
A. File group
B. Host name
C. Port number
D. Instance name
Answer: B,D

12.An administrator using a third-party firewall needs to manually reconfigure the firewall to allow port 3389 in order to permit________ (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. HDX communication
B. database communication
C. shadowing through Desktop Director
D. remote assistance through Desktop Studio
Answer: C

13.An administrator needs to create a Microsoft Windows 7 template for a XenDesktop environment and has already created a virtual machine with Microsoft Windows 7. Which step must the administrator take next before converting the virtual machine to a template?
A. Restart the virtual machine.
B. Restart the virtual hard disk.
C. Suspend the virtual hard disk.
D. Shut down the virtual machine.
Answer: D

14.How can an administrator remotely access a Controller in a XenDesktop environment in order to assign a dedicated desktop to a new user?
A. Install the Controller software on the server being used to access the Controller and point it to the appropriate Controller.
B. Install Desktop Studio on the server being used to access the Controller and point Desktop Studio to the appropriate Controller.
C. Install Web Interface on the server being used to access the Controller and log on to the appropriate Controller through Web Interface.
D. Install Desktop Director on the server being used to access the Controller and use Desktop Director to log on to the appropriate Controller.
Answer: D

15.Which HDX MediaStream policy setting must an administrator configure to adjust the quality of Flash content rendered on session hosts?
A. Flash (client-side)
B. Flash (server-side)
C. Multimedia Acceleration
D. Multimedia Acceleration buffer size
Answer: B

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Avaya ACIS 7004 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Maintenance Exam: 7004 Exam

  • 7004 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: Avaya ACIS 7004
  • Exam Name: Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Maintenance Exam
  • Q & A: 80 Q&As

1.Click the Exhibit button. A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an unassigned number in the customer ˉ s DI Dr anget ot he Att endant.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

2.A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

3.For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package, which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

4.A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

5.Click the Exhibit button.
 
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

6.Click the Exhibit button.
 
Given the customers programmed database shown in the exhibit and AC1 = 9, over which RLI will a call placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

7.An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000 system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

8.Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

9.The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

10.Click the Exhibit button. Consider a company ˉ s dialing plan shown in the exhibit and an example for its requirements:
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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Avaya ACIS 6202 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Contact Center Implementation Exam: 6202 Exam

  • 6202 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 6202
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Center Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 70 Q&As

1.You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone server. Which statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008 operating system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin of any other user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as iceAdmin or as any other user
Answer: B

2.You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot establish a connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to troubleshoot the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

3.In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have agents logged in with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous contact types such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by implementing the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like visualization
Answer: B

4.After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you want to display the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

5.Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in the binding order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in the binding order
Answer: C

6.You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and Server Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

7.You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The Application will be installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008 operating system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6 functionality?

A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the IPv6 check box
Answer: D

8.Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating system before you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

9.In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) supports secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security Certificate management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

10.A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

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Avaya ACIS 7003 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam: 7003 Exam

  • 7003 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACIS 7003
  • Exam Name: Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 78 Q&As

1.A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

2.A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

3.A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

4.A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ˉ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

5.You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

6.A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

7.Refer to the exhibit.
 
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ˉ sr equi r e ment s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

8.A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

9.A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

10.A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

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Avaya ACIS 6401 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam: 6401 Exam

  • 6401 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACIS 6401
  • Exam Name: Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 121 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
When using the Mobile Twinning option, calls ringing to your extension are not twinning to the
external device that you have set. What are two reasons that would cause the call not to twin?
(Choose two.)
A. The Mobile Twinning license is not available.
B. The phone is set in the Do Not Disturb state.
C. The phone is logged in as an agent.
D. There is no Mobile Twinning feature activation button set on the user.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 2
Your customer reports that once a week, they cannot leave messages when calling into voicemail.
The system needs to be restarted for it to work. They have an IP500 with VoiceMail Pro. You
realize that you must collect some information for analysis.
Which two statements are relevant? (Choose two.)
A. A debug view level 1 trace of the voicemail system covering from when the problem occurred
until it was resolved.
B. The voicemail server Windows system and application event logs.
C. A System Monitor trace of the IP Office covering the period before the voicemail returning busy
up until when the problem was resolved, with default options and voicemail events enabled.
D. A System Monitor trace of the IP Office covering the period before the voicemail returning busy
up until when the problem was resolved, with default options and voicemail/message recorder
enabled.
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two activities should be considered when tracing an issue with System Monitor for data
gathering? (Choose two.)
A. The trace should be checked to confirm that it does contain activity for the problem in
QUESTION NO.
B. The filters should be set correctly within the Monitor Application.
C. The trace should be truncated to only contain the QUESTION NOable activity.
D. Only the default options should be selected in System Monitor.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
You installed PhoneManager Pro at a customer's location. The application shows that it is logged
in with the PhoneManager Pro. However, the microphone and speaker are not active (grayed out).
Which two would resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. having a valid IP Audio Enabled license
B. installing the soundcard on the PC
C. attaching external speakers and microphones
D. setting the LAN connection for 100 MB, full duplex
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which application will allow you to check for errors within the IP Office configuration?
A. System Status Application
B. Manager
C. System Monitor
D. Call Status
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 7
Which two need to be set on the Manager PC to ensure a successful recovery of an IP Office
using the DTE port? (Choose two.)
A. Feature Key Server
B. a static IP address for the PC
C. UDP discovery turned on in Manager
D. correct BootP entry for the IP Office unit in Manager
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 8
When installing ContactStore, what are two basic requirements that must be confirmed on the PC
prior to loading the software? (Choose two.)
A. The PC must have 512MB of RAM and a 20GB hard drive space or higher.
B. The PC must be a Pentium III 2GHz, Celeron, or comparable AMD processor.
C. The PC must have one of the following Windows operating systems: XP Pro, 2000 Pro, 2000
Server, or 2003 Server.
D. The PC network connection must be able to support 1Gbps transmission speeds.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 9
An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 10
Which three options does the IP Office DHCP server supply to the Avaya 4600 and 5600 Series IP
Hardphone? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. TFTP server
C. gatekeeper address
D. IP trunk tagging COS values
E. VLAN ID
Answer: A,B,C

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