Avaya ACIS 7003 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam: 7003 Exam

  • 7003 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACIS 7003
  • Exam Name: Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 78 Q&As

1.A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

2.A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

3.A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

4.A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ˉ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

5.You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

6.A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

7.Refer to the exhibit.
 
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ˉ sr equi r e ment s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

8.A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

9.A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

10.A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

try_now

Avaya ACIS 6401 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam: 6401 Exam

  • 6401 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACIS 6401
  • Exam Name: Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 121 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
When using the Mobile Twinning option, calls ringing to your extension are not twinning to the
external device that you have set. What are two reasons that would cause the call not to twin?
(Choose two.)
A. The Mobile Twinning license is not available.
B. The phone is set in the Do Not Disturb state.
C. The phone is logged in as an agent.
D. There is no Mobile Twinning feature activation button set on the user.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 2
Your customer reports that once a week, they cannot leave messages when calling into voicemail.
The system needs to be restarted for it to work. They have an IP500 with VoiceMail Pro. You
realize that you must collect some information for analysis.
Which two statements are relevant? (Choose two.)
A. A debug view level 1 trace of the voicemail system covering from when the problem occurred
until it was resolved.
B. The voicemail server Windows system and application event logs.
C. A System Monitor trace of the IP Office covering the period before the voicemail returning busy
up until when the problem was resolved, with default options and voicemail events enabled.
D. A System Monitor trace of the IP Office covering the period before the voicemail returning busy
up until when the problem was resolved, with default options and voicemail/message recorder
enabled.
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two activities should be considered when tracing an issue with System Monitor for data
gathering? (Choose two.)
A. The trace should be checked to confirm that it does contain activity for the problem in
QUESTION NO.
B. The filters should be set correctly within the Monitor Application.
C. The trace should be truncated to only contain the QUESTION NOable activity.
D. Only the default options should be selected in System Monitor.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
You installed PhoneManager Pro at a customer's location. The application shows that it is logged
in with the PhoneManager Pro. However, the microphone and speaker are not active (grayed out).
Which two would resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. having a valid IP Audio Enabled license
B. installing the soundcard on the PC
C. attaching external speakers and microphones
D. setting the LAN connection for 100 MB, full duplex
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which application will allow you to check for errors within the IP Office configuration?
A. System Status Application
B. Manager
C. System Monitor
D. Call Status
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 7
Which two need to be set on the Manager PC to ensure a successful recovery of an IP Office
using the DTE port? (Choose two.)
A. Feature Key Server
B. a static IP address for the PC
C. UDP discovery turned on in Manager
D. correct BootP entry for the IP Office unit in Manager
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 8
When installing ContactStore, what are two basic requirements that must be confirmed on the PC
prior to loading the software? (Choose two.)
A. The PC must have 512MB of RAM and a 20GB hard drive space or higher.
B. The PC must be a Pentium III 2GHz, Celeron, or comparable AMD processor.
C. The PC must have one of the following Windows operating systems: XP Pro, 2000 Pro, 2000
Server, or 2003 Server.
D. The PC network connection must be able to support 1Gbps transmission speeds.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 9
An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 10
Which three options does the IP Office DHCP server supply to the Avaya 4600 and 5600 Series IP
Hardphone? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. TFTP server
C. gatekeeper address
D. IP trunk tagging COS values
E. VLAN ID
Answer: A,B,C

try_now

Avaya ACIS 6207 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Contact Recording and Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring Implementation Exam: 6207 Exam

  • 6207 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACIS 6207
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Recording and Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 65 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
It is strongly recommended to install the RedHat operating system (OS) from the kickstart file
(ks.cfg).
Which three components are necessary to create a ks.cfg file using the kickstart tool? (Choose
three)
A. The IP addresses of the network interfaces
B. The name of extra RedHat Package manager (RPM) packages to be installed
C. The MAC address of the Network Interface Card (NIC) Eth0
D. The IP address of the Network Time protocol (NTP) server
E. The/var partition size
Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has installed two Network Interface Cards (NICs) on an Avaya Aura Contact
Recording (Avaya CR) server. They are unable to capture Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP)
packets.
What are two possible reasons they are encountering this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The wrong NIC has been selected to use for RTP.
B. There is no network path between the Avaya Aura Communication Manager (Avaya CM) media resources and the NIC on the Avaya CR server to use for RTP.
C. There is no network path between both NICs and the recoded IP phones.
D. The gateway has not been set up on the NIC for only Search and Replay purposes.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 3
After installing the Avaya Aura Call Recording (Avaya CR) it is discovered that there are other
Avaya nd.ird services accounts present in the system, apart from root and witness account.
What are two reasons this would occur? (Choose two.)
A. They were automatically installed during the Avaya CR install process using the Graphical
UserInterface (GUI).
B. They were created by a dedicated patch for Avaya CR.
C. They were installed from the kickstart file (ks.cfg) during the Operating System (OS) installation.
D. The accounts were created when the cs-services package was installed as a part of the Avaya CR system.
E. Avaya Customer Support installed them from a special script per the customer's request.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 4
A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Viewer software on a client site, and is in
the process of configuring the software by adding a new system. In the configuration window a
Contact Platform Database must be added.
What is the name of the database used by Viewer?
A. ContactStore
B. EWareCalls
C. EWareDatabase
D. Recorder database
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer has requested the Avaya Aura Work Force Optimization Rls. 10.1 software be
installed. A technician is configuring the Avaya Aura Contact Recording Contact Center Interface.
Which setting refers to the Avaya Aura Contact Center?
A. AE Server Address
B. ES TSAPI Server
C. Address of the Communication Manager
D. Avaya Aura Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) Server
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two components must be installed to use Avaya Aura Archive? (Choose two.)
A. eWare database
B. Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) database
C. Avaya Aura Workforce Optimization Scorecard
D. Avaya Aura Viewer to replay calls
E. Avaya Aura Cognos Report Server
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 7
A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Contact Recording software on a client
site, and needs to configure the software.
Which URL should be entered into the web browser to access the administration pages?
A. http://servername:8087
B. http://servername:8080
C. http://servernamo/admin
D. http://servername/index
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) RIs. 10.x
software on a client site, and needs to configure the software. The Avaya QM solution is being
deployed as a single server solution. Under the LAN Data Adapter Properties section, the required session must be specified that the Avaya QM system will use.
Which sessions must be configured for the Avaya QM system to record and playback contacts
based on business rules?
A. Record at call start, Record by rule trigger, Video Playback, Audio Playback
B. Record by rule trigger, Video Playback, Audio Playback
C. Record at call start, Record by rule trigger
D. Record at call start, Video Playback, Audio Playback
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
A client would like to confirm that one Quality Monitoring supervisor can playback calls that are
actually under another supervisor's reporting hierarchy.
Where would the supervisor verity this information?
A. In the Administration page under the Roles tab
B. In the Reporting page under the Groups tab
C. In the Reporting page under the Roles tab
D. In the Search and Replay page under the Groups tab
E. Search and Replay page under the User Hierarchy tab
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10
A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) RIs. 10.x
software on a client site, and needs to configure the software. The customer has indicated that
they want to do Bulk Recording.
When configuring Station Bulk, which numbers can be set up for recordings?
A. Station extensions
B. VDN
C. Skill
D. Agent Identification (ID)
Answer: A

try_now

Avaya ACIS 6203 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam: 6203 Exam

  • 6203 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACIS 6203
  • Exam Name: Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 78 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal to a newer version, but the license is not upgraded.
What is the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
From the VPMS web interface, which menu path should be followed, to view the current status of
all MPP servers and get detailed information about any alarms they have generated?
A. System Configuration > System Monitor
B. System Configuration > MPP Management
C. Real-Time Monitoring > Monitor System
D. Real-Time Monitoring > System Monitor
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two methods can be used to initiate a Voice Portal 5 x Primary VPMS restore? (Choose
two.)
A. system restore page in VPMS web administration
B. do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup
C. restorempplogs.sh
D. do_MntDrv do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup/remotesvr
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Why is the "Hot word" Barge-in mechanism used?
A. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance is caught on that prompts
B. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the grammar
C. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the grammar and the decision is defined
D. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the prompt
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer is using skills-based routing. Which Avaya Aura CM forms must be administered to
map the requirements to agents/ports?
A. Vector and Agent LoginID forms
B. Hunt Group and Skill forms
C. Skill and Agent LoginID forms
D. Vector and Split forms
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
A customer is planning to deploy a Voice Portal solution, and wants to make sure they have
considered all aspects of their implementation design components. As a key component of the
implementation, which documents are included in the Document Review?
A. Deep Drive Results, Equipment List, Customer List, and SOW
B. Customer Scenario, Equipment List, SOW and Deep Dive Results
C. Customer Scenario, Hardware List, Deep Dive Results and SOW
D. Customer List, Hardware List, SOW and the Equipment List
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
Which statement about Auxiliary VPMS is true?
A. Only one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
B. More than one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
C. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed on a single server Voice Portal system.
D. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed co-resident with MPP server.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
In addition to the Project Overview, Standard service hours, Call Center Telephony Review, Call
Center Reporting Review, which other service is included in the Statement of Word (SOW)
component of a project?
A. Call Center Development Services
B. Call Center Programming Services
C. Call Center Leadership Services
D. Call Center Consultant Services
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
A technician cannot see the VPMS web interface. What is the first thing that should be done?
A. Restart all MPPs that are connected to the VPMS.
B. Reload the VPMS software.
C. Make sure that Axis is running.
D. Make sure that Tomcat is running.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10
What is the last step to be completed before testing the initialization and configuration?
A. Start the MPPs.
B. Stop the MPPS.
C. Start Applications.
D. Stop Applications.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 11
A user wants to view Application Transcription data from the VPMS web interface. To do this,
which three user roles must the user have? (Choose three.)
A. Administration
B. Auditor
C. Operations
D. Reporting
E. Web services
Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION NO: 12
An installation of VPMS fails and reports an error message that says:
RPM installation failed: Expected: jdk-1.6.0_07-fcs.i588.rpm Found: jdk-1.5.0_14-fcs Non-
Compliant Java SDK found.
Which two actions could be taken to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the installed JAVA SDK version it found and install the Expected JDK version and
resume installation.
B. Remove the installed JAVA SDK version, return to the Voice Portal installation script and
resume installation.
C. Install the Expected JDK version and reboot the machine.
D. Run the installation script to have Prerequisite Installer install the JDK version Voice Portal
requires.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 13
Which station type allows call activity to be isolated to an MPP Voice Portal running in the Test
operational mode?
A. Port Station
B. Maintenance Station
C. VOIP Station
D. Test Station
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
Which two statements about exporting an application are true? (Choose two.)
A. To deploy an application an Export Wizard will be used, and at the Destination Directory, the
project to export will be selected.
B. On the Specify Deployment Parameters page, at Tracing field, the checkbox should be selected
for testing purposes.
C. In the Servlet Container field, the container can be specified where the application will be
deployed.
D. On the Specify Deployment Parameters page, at the Reusable Modules, all the modules that
will be used in a large speech application should be selected.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 15
When the sample test application is called and the system answers, which valid menu item can be
tested?
A. bridged calls
B. bridged transfers
C. bridged classification
D. bridged conference
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 16
In which form is a Dialog Designer application exported?
A. The application will be exported as a web descriptor file.
B. The application will be exported as a wsdl item.
C. The application will be exported as a temporary file to your local directory.
D. The application will be exported as a WAR file or an EAR file.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 17
A customer has the required license file defining the telephony ports and ASR/TTS connections
that they are authorized to use. From the VPMS web interface, which menu path must they follow
to ensure that all licensed telephony ports are correctly allocated to the MPP servers?
A. Security > Licensing
B. Real-Time Monitoring > Port Distribution
C. System Configuration > VOIP Connections
D. System Configuration > VPMS Servers
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 18
The System Monitor page in the VPMS shows one MPP operational state as Not Responding,
Degraded, Unknown, Never Used or Error. When the technician logs into Linux on the MPP, it
shows the running state Stopped.
Which three statements describe a possible cause for this problem? (Choose three.)
A. The Web LM license has expired or the Enterprise Web LM server is down.
B. Time on the MPP needs to be synchronized with the VPMS and rebooted.
C. The MPP needs to be reconnected with the VPMS (setup_vpms.php).
D. Data Network or CM problems are causing the ports to go to the Our-of-Service state.
E. VPMS needs to be re linked with the MPP (certificate trust).
Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 19
Which Avaya Aura CM form includes creating skills or aplits as part of the implementation
process?
A. Hunt Group
B. VDN
C. Vector
D. Skill
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 20
Voice Portal 5.1 or newer connects to telephony resources using Voice over Internet Protocol. For
H.323 connectivity, which three resources will be used by the MPPs? (Choose three.)
A. IP Media Processor (MedPro)
B. Control Lan (CLAN)
C. IP_IR_A station licenses
D. G.711 and G.726 over RTP/RTPC
E. G.711 and G.729 over RTP/RTPC
Answer: A,B

try_now

Avaya ACSS 6201 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Call Center Elite and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam: 6201 Exam

  • 6201 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 6201
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Call Center Elite and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 77 Q&As

1.You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone server. Which statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008 operating system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin of any other user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as iceAdmin or as any other user
Answer: B

2.You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot establish a connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to troubleshoot the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

3.In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have agents logged in with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous contact types such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by implementing the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like visualization
Answer: B

4.After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you want to display the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

5.Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in the binding order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in the binding order
Answer: C

6.You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and Server Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

7.You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The Application will be installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008 operating system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6 functionality?
A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the IPv6 check box
Answer: D

8.Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating system before you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

9.In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) supports secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security Certificate management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

10.A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

try_now

Avaya ACSS 6002 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam: 6002 Exam

  • 6002 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 6002
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam
  • Q & A: 78 Q&As

1.When troubleshooting a system fault, if the web interface or SAT are unavailable, which method should be used?
A. SAL
B. TTY2
C. CLI
D. MODEM
Answer: C

2.Which two series support RAID 5 configuration for CM6.0? (Choose two)
A. S8730 Server with 8 GB RAM
B. S8800 Server with 12 GB RAM
C. S8510 Server with 8 GB RAM
D. S8300D Server with 8 GB RAM
Answer: B,C

3.Hunt group number 99, with group extension 4199, is administered for messaging.
Which command needs to be executed at the SAT terminal to troubleshoot hunt group 99?
A. Shoe tracelog huntgroup 4199
B. View logs real time huntgroup 99
C. Display real time logs hunt group 99
D. List trace hunt-group 4199
Answer: D

4.A customer needs to set up SIP integration on Communication Manager Messaging Application What are three pieces of information that are needed to meet this requirement? (Choose three)
A. Signaling group number
B. SIP domain
C. Transport Method
D. Extension length
E. Hunt Group number
Answer: B,C,D

5.Which three are tests that can be performed to Verify a communication manager Messaging 6.0 application is working properly? (Choose three)
A. Verify the hunt group status
B. Check the messaging port status using the display port command
C. Call the messaging Hunt Group
D. Check the messaging port status using the status port command
E. Perform message waiting indication test
Answer: A,C,E

6.On a media gateway G450, which slots are permitted for the MM 342?
A. V1 and V2
B. V6 and V6
C. V3 and V8
D. V5 and V7
Answer: C

7.A customer is planning to upgrade from CM 5X to CM 6.0 an existing 8510 server.
What is the total minimum memory requirement for this upgrade?
A. 4 GB RAM
B. 8 GB RAM
C. 12 GB RAM
D. 16 GB RAM
Answer: B

8.Which screen is used while upgrading the system platform from release 6.0.0.09 to release 6.0.0.11?
A. Communication manager Web interface
B. Console domain Server Management Path management
C. Console domain Server Management Platform Upgrade
D. Console domain Virtual Machine Management
Answer: C

9.Which three statements about CM_Duplex CM 6.0 are true?
A. Software duplication is available, but hardware duplication is not available.
B. The S8510 server is not used for duplication
C. Server duplication is configured via Failover option on CDROMs web interface
D. S8730 with DAL 2 card does not support server duplication in CM 6.0.
E. The CM duplex template supports CMM
Answer: A,B,D

10.Which gateway command resets the Gateway back to factory default?
A. Reset
B. Restart
C. Softboot
D. Nvram init
Answer: D

try_now

Avaya ACSS 3600 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam: 3600 Exam

  • 3600 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 3600
  • Exam Name: Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam
  • Q & A: 85 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected
without intermediary WAN transport devices.
What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 2
The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use of an MPLS network.
Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation D.
The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE devices.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent. The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is
undetermined at this point and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels.
How can the ERS 8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
Traceout allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI command. In the command output, the possible range of ‘w’ values is 1-255.
The ‘w’ value represents wait time for what?
A. Start of command execution
B. Time to live
C. Per probe
D. Completion of traceout report
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
What is Enterprise Policy Manager (EPM) used for in an Enterprise network?
A. to manage traffic prioritization and network access security for business applications
B. as an alternative to EA servers
C. to distribute control of packet classification for resiliency and efficiency
D. to assign user role attributes on the RADIUS server
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
Which protocol can be used for end-to-end detection in a network as well as for point-to-point detection?
A. LACP
B. VLACP
C. RSTP
D. MSTP
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server.
Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
The trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
A technician is configuring 802.1Q tagging Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) with timeout and untagged frames to be discarded.
Which part of the network is being configured?
A. 1ST
B. the out-of-band management port
C. the edge access ports
D. the uplinks
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11
When incorporating Split Multi-Link Trunk (SMLT) on a pair of Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches traffic from the edge of the network is directed to either ERS 8600. The ping-snoop feature assists in determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
Determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
A. Ping-snoop looks at the IP header and directs traffic to designated link.
B. Ping-snoop looks at the MAC header and directs traffic to the designated link
C. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the IP flow specified in the ping-snoop command.
D. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the MAC header (source and destination) specified in the ping-snoop command.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
One of the benefits of the Ethernet Routing switch (ERS) 8300 switch is its ability to provide power-over-Ethernet (PoE). When implementing PoE on the ERS 8300 there are certain power supply requirements to consider. The 8301AC produces 1140W and 1770W and the 8302AC produces 850W and 1400W depending on the input voltage for both cases.
If there are eight 8648TX-PWR modules in a chassis, each needing 200W for Powered Devices
(PI)) which power supply configuration is recommended?
A. One8301AC power supply with 240VAC input voltage
B. Two8302AC power supplies with 120VAC input voltage
C. Three83CAC power supplies with 240VAC input voltage
D. Two8301AC andone8302Ac for redundancy with 240VAC input voltage
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13
When configuring an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 redundant Installation for warm standby, which protocol is used to give the fastest recalculation of large layer 3 topology by the standby CPU, after a Master CPU failure?
A. STP
B. Rip
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface prompt.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
Which set of procedures will upgrade the boot monitor on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 with a single 8692SF module?
A. Copy the new image to flash. Activate the new image with SF module in service.
B. Copy the new image to flash. Boot the new image.
C. Modify the boot choice for run-time image. Boot the new image.
D. Copy the new image to flash. Modify the boot choice for run-time image. Boot the new image.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 16
Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 17
Which feature can be used on a Split Multi I ink Trunking (SMLT) with a Sod Down option?
A. Extended control packet limit (ext-CP)
B. Discard untagged frames
C. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP)
D. Virtual Link Aggregation Protocol (VLACP)
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 18
Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
What is a characteristic of Routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) configuration?
A. RSMLT is only configured on edge SMLT connections.
B. RSMLT uses priority values to distinguish between the primary and backup routers
C. RSMLT routers are implemented with Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF)-Lite routers
D. RSMLT is always used in conjunction with routing protocols and SMLT connections.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 20
An Information Technology organization needs to determine whether they should upgrade their existing Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches to release 5.0. Each chassis currently has both 8648GTR 8648TX modules. One of the features that the company requires is the ability to perform port mirroring on multiple ports per module at a time.
What should be done to meet their port mirroring requirement when upgrading to software release 5.0?
A. Replace the existing modules with 8648GTRS modules,
B. Upgrade to ERS 8600 Release 5.0 without any hardware upgrade.
C. Replace the existing 8648TX modules with ERS 8648TXE for egress mirroring.
D. Recommend other means to capturing traffic.
Answer: B

try_now

Avaya ACSS 3305 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance exam: 3305 Exam

  • 3305 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 3305
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance exam
  • Q & A: 68 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
In the Intelligent Customer Routing (ICK) deployment, all agents in the call center are either logged out or in Auxiliary mode.
Which is an accurate description of how ICR handles a call arriving in the system?
A. The ICR Core performs polling and provides a result which suggests routing the call to this call center. The ICR Call Control Application (CCA) launches the Walt Treatment Application (WTA) and routes the call.
B. The ICR Core performs polling and provides a result which suggests that the agent is not available. The ICR CCA launches the Generic Error Handling Application (EHA).
C. The ICR Core performs polling and provides a result which suggests that the agent is not
D. The ICR Core performs polling and provides a result which suggests that the agent is not available. The ICR CCA launches the Non Business Hours Application.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
In the intelligent customer routing (ICR) deployment, the standard ICR CCA session Detail Report (SDR) is shown below. What is an accurate explanation of this SDR report?
A. The call was initially queued on 70001@icr.com where due to SIP ERROR the call got requeued 82003@icr.com. The call then observed a spike in Estimated Wait Time (EWT) and it was re-queued 92014@icr.com.
B. The call was initially queued on 82003@icr.com where due to SIP ERROR the call got requeued to 70001@icr.com. The call then observed a spike in EWT and it was re-queued 920l4.aicr.com.
C. The call was initially queued on 70001 a icr.com where due to spike in EWT the call got requeued to 82003 a cr.com. The call then observed SIP ERROR and it was re-queued 92014@icr.com.
D. The call was initially queued on 82003aicr.com where due to spike in EWT the call got requeued to 70001@icr.com- The call then observed SIP ERROR and it was re-queued 92014@icr.com.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
A technician has upgraded the Primary Experience Portal Manager (EPM) and finds that the Auxiliary I I'M |is no longer able to communicate with it. Which corrective action should be taken?
A. Restart httpd on the Auxiliary EPM.
B. Log into Linux on the Media Processing Platforms (MPPs) and run bash setup_vpms.php <Auxiliary EPM>
C. Log into Linux on the MPPs and run bash setup_vpms.php <Primary EPM>
D. Upgrade the Auxiliary EPM.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which two user roles can be used to add, change, or delete the Intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) Control Application on the Experience Portal Manager? (Choose two)
A. Administration
B. Web Services
C. Maintenance
D. Operations
E. ICR Administrator
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer creates a campaign but it is failing to start. Which two logs should be checked for possible error messages? (Choose two)
A. $POM__HOME/logs/PIM _CmpMgr.log* log files
B. $POM_HOME/logs/PIM_CmpDir.log* log files
C. $POM _HOME/logs/PIM_Web.log log*files
D. $POM_.HOME/logs/CmpMgrService.out* log files
E. $POM_HOME/logs/CmpDirService.out* log files
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 6
A/hen configuring a scheduled report on the Avaya tie types may be selected? (Choose three)
A. .doc (Microsoft Word)
B. .xls (Microsoft Excel)
C. .pdf (Portable Document Format)
D. .jpg (Digital Image)
E. .csv (Comma separated value)
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 7
Your client reported they were monitoring a campaign for Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) from the Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAI P) Web Administration POM Monitor screen and they
observed a message "Resource temporarily Unavailable." Which two steps would you take to identity the cause of this message? (Choose two)
A. Verify that the Media Processing Platform (MPP) is operational
B. Verify that the text-to Speech (TTS) Speech Server is working and is licensed correctly
C. Verify that the Experience Portal Manager (EPM) can communicate with the Avaya Aura
Communication Manager (AACM)
D. Verify that the WebLM license is not expired arid verify if you have configured the required number
E. Verify that the Short Message Service (SMS) server is not down.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 8
You have received alarm event "QSYSM00056 MPP disk use (85% percent) has exceeded the configured low threshold of 80 percent" on your co-resident Avaya Aura Experience Portal server.
You login to the server and run the below Red Hat administrative command to review disk space
usage: [scroot@vp-a1/] # -b – – max – depth = 1 – h/
20K /mnt
12M /tmp
10.8G/home
5.9M /bin
24K /root
91.3G /opt
85G /var
16G /
Which three folders are most likely to contain files which can be deleted to make room on the server disk? (Choose three)
A. /var/llb/pgsql/data
B. /home
C. /var/spool/mail
D. /opt/Avaya/InstallAgent/download
E. /opt.Tomcat/apache-tomcat-6.0.32/webapps
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 9
A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal 5.x to Avaya Aura Experience Portal 6.0, hut the license not upgraded.
What is the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
A customer has installed Avaya Aura Experience Portal, but no port was specified in the configuration the WebLM server.
What is the default port used by the WebLM server?
A. 443
B. 8443
C. 8080
D. 28443
Answer: B

try_now

Avaya ACSS 3304 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Call Center Elite Implementation and Maintenance Exam: 3304 Exam

  • 3304 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 3304
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Call Center Elite Implementation and Maintenance Exam
  • Q & A: 77 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements describe the benefits of the Business Advocate (BA) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It enablesrouting of calls to the agent that is most idle.
B. It dynamically matches a customer to an optimal agent.
C. It provides conditional routing of calls to agent queues.
D. It allows for dynamic reporting of call center activities in custom methods.
E. It uses advanced algorithms to efficiently route calls to agents.
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 2
What are three added features when you upgrade form Basic Avaya Call Center to Avaya Call Center Elite? (Choose three.)
A. Service Level Maximize
B. Advocate
C. Hunt Group
D. Call Management System (CMS)
E. Agent Selection (EAS)
Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 3
A supervisor wants to endure that a specified group of agents logout at a specified time during the work week. How can this be accomplished?
A. with After Call Work (ACW) Agent Considered Idle
B. with Forced Agent Logout Time
C. with Interruptible Aux Notification Timer (sec)
D. with Maximum Time Agent in ACW before logout (sec)
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
A customer has Business Advocate (BA) features turned on.
Which technique can be used to protect the predetermined level of service to a valued skill, II volumes or agent staffing levels change abruptly?
A. queue priority levels
B. reserve agents
C. skill preference levels
D. percent allocation
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
A call center operations manager wants agents to manually enter a code to identify the reason for being in auxiliary (AUX) work status.
Which feature must be activated on the system-parameters custom-options to allow this?
A. Call Work Codes
B. Authorization Codes
C. Reason Codes
D. AUX State Codes
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which three statements about circular hunt groups are true? (Choose three)
A. The next call to the hunt group is offered to the next station in the members list in a round robin fashion, starting with the first administered station.
B. The call distribution is dependent of how long stations have been idle.
C. The call distribution is independent of how long stations have been idle.
D. The next tall to the hunt group will be routed to the next agent (station) if the previous agent did not answer the last call.
E. The next call to the hunt-group will be routed to the same agent (station) if that agent did not answer the last call.
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 7
A supervisor would like to have their agents automatically log out at a specific time.
Which administration form is used to configure this functionality?
A. Hunt Group Form
B. Agent LoginID Form
C. Feature-Related System-Parameters Form
D. Station Form
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
While configuring the Service Observing feature, which three forms should be configured and/or verified?
A. System Parameters
B. Class of Service
C. Feature-Related System Parameters
D. Class of restriction
E. Station
Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION NO: 9
Which three monitor commands are available with Basic Call Management System (BCMS)? (Choose three)
A. Monitor bcms agent
B. Monitor bcms skill
C. Monitor bcms split
D. Monitor bcms system
E. Monitor bcms vector
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 10
What provides built-in real and historical reporting capabilities for the call center, including reports for Splits/Skill, Agents, Vector Directory Numbers (VDNs) and trunk groups?
A. VvStats
B. Service level maximize (SLM)
C. Basic Call management System (BCMS)
D. Automated Number Identification (ANI)
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 11
A customer wants the ability to track the call types for Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) calls answered by agents. These call types will be defined by the customer.
Which call feature can the customer use to track their defined call types?
A. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
B. Call Work Codes (CWC)
C. Feature Access Codes (FAC)
D. Redistribution on No Answer (RONA)
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12
You are implementing a new contact center and gathering all information for the new agents. The Communication manager (CM) Agent Login ID form is populated from information gathered on the Agent Skills Worksheet.
Which three items are included on this worksheet? (Choose three)
A. Call handling preference
B. Login ID
C. Skill preferences
D. Skill level
E. Class of service (COS)
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 13
Which vector object can replace the Time of Day (TOD) global Vector Variable?
A. Business Schedule Table
B. Vector Routing Table
C. Service Hours Table
D. Policy Routing Table
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
The first administered extensions in the hunt-group screen is usually serving a call, and is often referred to as ‘hot seat’.
What is the name of this call distribution method?
A. circ
B. ead-mia
C. ucd-loa
D. ddc
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 15
A customer has Elite Call Center package and wants Basic Call Management System (BCMS) for reports. Which statement is true about this scenario?
A. BCMS has all the functions Call Management System (CMS) supports but with less capacity.
B. BCMS generates Split Reports and not Skills Reports.
C. BCMS does not support all Call Center Elite features
D. BCMS is only offered for Customers with a Basic Call Center package.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 16
Improve call handling and agent productivity you set up a vector using Look Ahead Interflow to check id site can accept a call and has an agent available. You only want to Interflow calls that are
at the top two positions of the queue. Which command would be entered in the vector to accomplish this?
A. route-to number 9581234 with cov y if interflow – qpos = 2
B. route-to number 9581234 with cov n if interflow – qpos <= 2
C. route-to number 9581234 with cov n if interflow – qpos < 2
D. route-to number 9581234 with cov y if interflow – qpos <= 2
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 17
A situation has come up where it is necessary to have more than one service observer active against a Vector Directory Number (VDN).
Which two parameters are necessary to make that happen? (Choose two.)
A. Allow Two Observers in Same Call
B. Service Observing /SSC Allowed with Exclusion
C. Service Level Maximizer
D. serviceobserving(VDN
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 18
A customer wants to routinely monitor their vectors for unexpected results.
How would they monitor their results?
A. In the Communication Manage (CM), use the list history command.
B. In the CM, use the display events command.
C. In Call Management System (CMS), use the System Maintenance > Reports > Error Log
Report
D. In CMS, use the Exceptions > Reports > Vector Exceptions.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 19
While configuring a vector using the best Service Routing feature, the installer was not able to use the consider location command.
Why did the installer encounter this feature?
A. The Best Service Routing feature was not enabled on the Feature-Related System Parameters form.
B. Look Ahead Interflow (LAI) was not enabled on the System-Parameters Customer Options form
C. Expert Agent Selection (EAS) was not enabled on the Feature-Related System Parameters form.
D. Preference Handling Distribution (FAS-PHD) was not enabled on the System-Parameters Customer-Options form.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 20
Which two Vector Directory Number (VDN) parameters are associated with the active VDN? (Choose two)
A. Class of Restriction (COR)
B. Tenant Number (TN)
C. Class of Services (COS)
D. Measured
E. VDN Skill
Answer: B,E

try_now

Avaya ACSS 3301 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Contact Center Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam: ACSS 3301 Exam

  • 3301 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: ACSS 3301
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Center Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam
  • Q & A: 56 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
What is the update frequency of the Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) Dashboard?
A. The Dashboard refreshes every 5 seconds.
B. The Dashboard refreshes every 10 seconds by default.
C. The Dashboard refresh rate is configurable from 1-360 seconds.
D. The Dashboard update requires clicking on the Refresh button.
E. The Dashboard update requires clicking on the Update button.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
When attempting to log on to Contact Center Manager Administrator (CCMA) for the first time using internet Explorer 7.0, a new supervisor sees the message "ERROR:UNKNOWN!" on the login page. None the other supervisors report the issue, and you have logged onto CCMA yourself with the "webadmin" account and verified that it is functioning normally.
What is causing this problem and how should it be corrected?
A. The CCMA server does not have a Windows Language Pack installed for the language assigned to the supervisor's account in Access and Partition Management. You must either install
the appropriate language pack or change the supervisor's language to a language that does have Windows language pack installed.
B. The supervisor is connecting to the CCMA website while logged into the computer as a nondomain user. You must update the Anonymous access configuration for the default website to use the "IUSR_SWC" credentials or ensure that all supervisors only use domain accounts when accessing CCMA.
C. The character encoding is set to an incorrect value in the supervisor's web browser. Set the encoding in Internet Explorer to "Western European" and then reload the website.
D. The URL for the CCMA server has not been added to the list of Trusted Sites in the supervisor's web browser. Add the CCMA URL to the list of Trusted Sites, then restart Internet Explorer and reconnect to the website.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two visualization technologies are supported for Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC)? (Choose two.)
A. VMWare vSphere 3.0
B. VMWare vSphere 4.0
C. Microsoft Hyper-V
D. Microsoft Virtual Server
E. XenSecure Xen 3.1.2
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 4
Which Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) historical report contains the time of arrival, Automatic Number Identification (ANI), answering agent, and final disposition for individual calls?
A. Contacts Details report
B. Contacts Received by Skillset report
C. Contact Summary report
D. Contact Treatment report
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
When initiating a simple SIP call, the SIP architecture uses an INVIII method message.
Which two fields would you examine to determine that an INVITE message was initiated when tracing a SIP call?
A. Call-ID:, Contact:
B. Request:, Cseq:
C. Via:, To:
D. Contact:, Cseq:
E. Request:, To:
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) deployment, which component supplies call treatment and call progress tones to external callers?
A. Avaya Media Server
B. Contact Center Media Services
C. Session Manager
D. SIP Gateway Manager
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
You have downloaded a new Quick Fix Engineering (QEF) patch for the Avaya Media Server (Avaya MS). You must install the QEF patch on the Avaya MS server.
What is used to install QFE patches on the Avaya MS?
A. the System Configuration > Software Update page in the Avaya MS Element Manager
B. the Patch Manager on the Avaya MS server
C. the maspatch command-line utility on the Avaya MS server
D. the syspatch command-line utility on the Avaya MS server
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8
You are unable to access the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) Web Administration tool.
When you click on the link in Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA), your Web browser displays the message "Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage."
What should you do next to begin troubleshooting the issue?
A. Start the CCTOMCATSRV service on the CCT server.
B. Verify that the port number configured for the CCT server in CCMA is set to 8443.
C. Ensure that IIS is properly installed and configured on the CCT server.
D. Ensure that the SSL certificate issued to the CCT server is installed on the CCMA server.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
Real-time displays on a standalone Contract Center manager Administration (CCMA) are not being updated with data. You suspect that the CCMA server is not receiving real-time data from
the Contact Center Server (CCMS).
Which tool on the CCMA server can he used to determine whether real time data is being received from CCMS?
A. mRcv.exe
B. RTR Monitor from the CCMA Configuration utility
C. iceRTDTrace.exe
D. mCast.exe
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10
In a SIP environment, which component of Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) performs call processing?
A. .NET
B. SIP Computer Telephony Integration (CTI)
C. SIP Gateway Manager
D. SIP Proxy Server
E. SIP Redirect Server
Answer: B

try_now

Avaya ACSS 3300 Dumps and Practice Tests

Avaya Aura Contact Center Administration Exam: ACSS 3300 Exam

  • 3300 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: 3300
  • Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Center Administration Exam
  • Q & A: 62 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
An agent In Avaya Aura Contact Center steps away from the phoneset without logging out or going into Not Ready- Upon return. It is discovered that the telephone has been logged out.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The "Longest Idle since Last ACD/CDN" calls expired, logging out the telephone.
B. The Call Presentation Class "Return To Queue" was enabled for this telephone, a call was presented and returned to the queue while the agent was away and the Logout option was assigned for After "Return to Queue, Make Phone set".
C. The Call Presentation Class "After Call Break for N seconds" was enabled for this telephone, and the telephone was forced logged out.
D. The "Longest Idle since Login" expired, logging out the telephone.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
A supervisor with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to setup a requirement for the Calls Waiting column on a Sklllset Display to update in yellow when three or four calls are in queue, and red when five or more calls are in queue for the Customer Service Sklllset.
Which three areas of Contact Center Administration must be configured to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a Sklllset Threshold Class, assign 3 to Level 1, and 5 to Level 2 for Calls Waiting.
B. Open a Standard Skillset Display, assign yellow highlighting to level 1 of the Calls Waiting column, and red to level 2 of the Calls Waiting column,
C. Assign Sklllset Threshold Class to Customer Service Skillset.
D. Create a custom formula for Calls Waiting.
E. Create a custom Skillset Display, assign yellow highlighting to level 1 of the Calls Waiting column, and red to level 2 of the Calls Waiting column.
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 3
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has created a script application. The customer would like to convert this script application into a flow application.
Which two statements regarding converting scripts are true? (Choose two.)
A. The original script application must be In the Contact Center View.
B. The original script application must be In the Local View.
C. The conversion of the script to a flow results in only one APPLICATION, the flow version.
D. The conversion of a script to a flow results in two scripts, the original script version and the new flow version.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 4
A supervisor In an Avaya Aura Contact Center SIP environment would like to play an announcement and collect digits from a caller using the following TFE command:
GIVE IVR WITH VXML TREATMENT voicexml PARAMETERS What are two Inputs after the PARAMETERS command? (Choose two.)
A. prompttoplay
B. _c_play_and_collect
C. GIVE IVR WITH VXML TREATMENT
D. Numberofdigits
E. ASSIGN "please enter account number.wav"
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center requires a real time report that will show up to 15 minutes of real time data on the screen, allowing the supervisor to identify trends as they emerge.
Which Real Time Display would accomplish this?
A. Agent Map
B. Billboard Collection
C. Interval to Date Display
D. Time Line Display
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
A customer would like incoming calls to queue to the skillset with the most agents in service.
Which intrinsic would accomplish this?
A. MOST LOGGED AGENTS
B. OLDEST
C. LOGGED OUT AGENT
D. LOGGED AGENT COUNT
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center Manager Server would like to view the differences between the data In the Local View and the data In the Contact Center View, and then resolve the differences so that both views contain the same data.
Which view enables this feature?
A. Problems View
B. Synchronization View
C. Comparison View
D. Editor View
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to create a script In the Local View. Which three statements are true regarding the Local View? (Choose three.)
A. The Local View can be populated with Contact Center View data.
B. Application Manager Data added to the Local View is automatically updated in the Contact Center View.
C. The Local View can be launched as a stand-alone option from an executable on a user's machine.
D. By default, when the Local View is initially opened it includes the same data as the Contact
Center View.
E. New applications created In the Local View may be added to the Contact Center View using the Synchronization View.
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 9
When using a host block within a call flow, what does the Provider ID value refer to?
A. This is the HDX Connection Provider ID set within the database integration wizard.
B. This Is the SQL Statement ID set within the database integration wizard.
C. This is the license identifier of the Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) base Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license.
D. This is the caller's telephone number.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10
A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center needs to create a new Contact Center Supervisor who will also be an Administrative User.
Which field on the Supervisor Definition page must be completed to simultaneously create a supervisor and an Administrative User?
A. User type
B. Login ID
C. Create CCT Agent
D. CCMA Login Account Details
Answer: D

try_now

1 455 456 457 458 459 499