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A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?

A.    The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B.    The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C.    R1 has no route to the network.
D.    The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E.    The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Answer: C
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes along a proper route to the destination node. A remote network is a network that can only be reached by sending the packet to another router. Remote networks are added to the routing table using either a dynamic routing protocol or by configuring static routes. Static routes are routes to networks that a network administrator manually configured.So R should have static route for the

What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?

A.    local DLCI on the subinterface
B.    remote DLCI on the main interface
C.    remote DCLI on the subinterface
D.    local DLCI on the main interface

Answer: A
To assign a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to a specified Frame Relay subinterface on the router or access server, or to assign a specific permanent virtual circuit (PVC) to a DLCI, or to apply a virtual template configuration for a PPP session, use the frame-relay interface-dlci interface configuration command

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    Administratively shut down the interface.
B.    Physically secure the interface.
C.    Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D.    Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E.    Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Answer: DE
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces -> A is not correct. We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is “virtual” -> B is not correct. To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the “access-class” command. The “access-group” command is only used to apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is not correct; E is correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password to prevent unauthorized login -> D is correct.

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A.    A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B.    Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C.    VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D.    Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E.    A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F.    VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Answer: BDE
well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct.
To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or
Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.
VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct.
Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or
sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use for VLAN 1, for VLAN 2 -> D is correct.
A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on
the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its
bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this
frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct.
We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?

A.    The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected
for more than five minutes.
B.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address
of the remote router.
C.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger
a call to the remote router.
D.    The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC
E.    The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Answer: D
The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:
ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit dataINACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to the remote router is not availableDELETED:
the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame Relay switch STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen.

What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?

A.    show frame-relay pvc
B.    show frame-relay lmi
C.    show frame-relay map
D.    show frame relay end-to-end

Answer: C
This command is used to verify whether the frame-relay inverse-arp command resolved a remote IP address to a local DLCI. Use the show frame-relay map command to display the current map entries and information about the connections.

What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?

A.    It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B.    IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C.    A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D.    The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility
over point-to-point configurations.

Answer: B
you do not have to assign a separate subnet per sub-interface .if you’re using a Class A network (10.x.x.x/8), you blow the whole network on a few connections (if you used VLSM, you could use a better mask, limit the addresses used). if you used, you would not be assigning the entire /8 to a single network. You would select a subnet mask for the network and then, you would have to use that mask with all subnets of the network. So if you chose a /24 mask, that would mean that you would have to use a /24 mask for even point-to-point links.

Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)

A.    the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B.    the value of the local DLCI
C.    the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D.    the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E.    the IP address of the local router

Answer: BD

Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

A.    RSA
B.    L2TP
C.    IPsec
D.    PPTP

Answer: C
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a technology protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and/or encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. IPsec also includes protocols for establishing mutual authentication between agents at the beginning of the session and negotiation of cryptographic keys to be used during the session.

At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A.    Layer 2
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 4
D.    Layer 5

Answer: A
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a data link protocol commonly used in establishing a direct connection between two networking nodes. It can provide connection authentication, transmission encryption (using ECP, RFC 1968), and compression.

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What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A.    2
B.    4
C.    16
D.    unlimited

Answer: B
4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routing table and perform load balancing amongst them. In order to configure this feature, you need to use the OSPF subcommand maximum-paths, i.e. maximum-paths 16.

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

A.    hop count
B.    administrative distance
C.    link bandwidth
D.    link delay
E.    link cost

Answer: B

What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B.    the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C.    the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D.    the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E.    the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

Answer: BD
Link State routing protocols, such as OSPF and IS-IS, converge more quickly than their distance vector routing protocols such as RIPv1, RIPv2, EIGRP and so on, throught the use of flooding and triggered updates. In link state protocols, changes are flooded immediatedly and computed in parallel. Triggered updates improve convergence time by requiring routers to send an update message immediately upon learning of a route change. These updates are triggered by some event, such as a new link becoming available oor an existing link failing. The main drawbacks to link state routing protocols are the amount of CPU overhead involved in calculating route changes and memory resources that are required to store neighbor tables, route tables and a complete topology table.

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A.    Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B.    Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C.    Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D.    Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E.    An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F.    Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G.    Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Answer: BG

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A.    ipv6 local
B.    ipv6 host
C.    ipv6 unicast-routing
D.    ipv6 neighbor

Answer: C
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.Lowest Administrative distance will be choose first.EIGRP has 90 , RIP has 120 , OSPF has 110.
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP

A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?

A.    the route learned through EIGRP
B.    the route learned through OSPF
C.    the route learned through RIP
D.    the route with the lowest metric
E.    all three routes with the router load balancing

Answer: A

What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?

A.    It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the
routing table.
B.    It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C.    It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths
to the destination network.
D.    It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: C

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

A.    show ip ospf link-state
B.    show ip ospf lsa database
C.    show ip ospf neighbors
D.    show ip ospf database

Answer: D

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A.    90
B.    100
C.    110
D.    120

Answer: C
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP

The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:

interface fastethernet 0/4
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security

What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?

A.    A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4
B.    A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4
C.    Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D.    The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E.    The port is effectively shutdown

Answer: BD

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Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B.    RSTP defines new port roles.
C.    RSTP defines no new port states.
D.    RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E.    RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Answer: BE

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A.    learning
B.    listening
C.    discarding
D.    forwarding

Answer: C
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A.    discarding
B.    listening
C.    learning
D.    forwarding
E.    disabled

Answer: AD
RSTP only has 3 port states that are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A.    RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B.    RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C.    RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D.    RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E.    RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F.    RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer: ABD

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A.    physical
B.    data link
C.    network
D.    transport

Answer: B
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2.

What is one benefit of PVST+?

A.    PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B.    PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C.    PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D.    PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Answer: C
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network. It means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic.

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    It converges quickly.
B.    OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C.    It uses cost to determine the best route.
D.    It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E.    OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F.    OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

Answer: ACF

Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?

A.    Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B.    RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C.    Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D.    EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.

Answer: C
RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF does not).To make discontiguous networks work, meaning you don’t want classful boundries to summarize, you need to turn off auto-summary.

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Bandwidth and Delay
C.    Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D.    Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Answer: A

Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)

A.    A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B.    Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C.    Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D.    A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E.    Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Answer: AD

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IBM Cognos ICM Specialist Exam

Vendor: IBM
Exam Code: C2020-004
Exam Name: IBM Cognos ICM Specialist Exam

When using an effective dated table as a source for a calculation, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Join start and end date of the effective dated table to a single date.
B.    Join the calendar table to the effective dated table.
C.    Join on both effective dates.
D.    Join an effective dated table to another effective dated table (not Time).

Answer: AC

Click the Exhibit button.

In Presenter, when preparing data sources for the report shown in the exhibit, which type of source must be created to produce the subtotals by payee?

A.    Data Source
B.    Subtotal Source
C.    Aggregate Transformation
D.    Computed Row

Answer: C

Which table type is built by joining one or more tables and calculations together?

A.    Data
B.    Hierarchy
C.    Custom
D.    View

Answer: D

What is the impact of locking model calendars?

A.    It affects calculations partitioned by the same calendar.
B.    It has no effect on any calculations in the model.
C.    It affects every calculation in the model regardless of calendars used.
D.    It only affects calculations related to payout.

Answer: A

How does information from the Web client reach the database server?

A.    from the Admin client
B.    from the Web Application server
C.    from the Cognos ICM Service
D.    from the Web Application server to the Cognos ICM Service

Answer: B

Which table property can be changed after it is saved?

A.    name
B.    description
C.    primary key
D.    type

Answer: B

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Gwen works for a small company where she has been asked to find a cost-effective option for providing comprehensive customer service. The finance, technical support, sales and customer service departments all need to share information about their customers. Gwen is considering adoption of a customer relationship management (CRM) application. Which of the following would be the most cost-effective solution?

A.    She can purchase a new server, then create and maintain the CRM in-house.
B.    She can outsource all customer service so the company can focus on product development.
C.    She can contract with a cloud service provider to host the CRM that her company’s employees
can access.
D.    She can hire a programmer to develop and maintain the CRM specific to her company’s needs,
then have a service provider host the application.

Answer: C

Which of the following is used to help non-technical users collectively classify and find information on a site?

A.    Tagging
B.    A wiki
C.    Web feed
D.    Ajax

Answer: A

Sally is a network technician at Acme Corporation. She has been directed to configure the network adapter for a company laptop so that it can be used to connect to the company network and the Internet. What is one of the required TCP/IP settings that she will need to configure?

A.    MAC address
B.    Default gateway
C.    Workstation name
D.    Loopback address

Answer: B

Web pages structured with which tag will fail W3C validation tests, no matter what standard is used?

A.    <d iv>
B.    <table>
C.    <header>
D.    <aside>

Answer: B

Consider the following address:
http://www.ClWcertified .com/Certifications/Web_Foundations/iba.php
Which of the following is the best classification for the address?

A.    Fully qualified domain name
B.    Virtual domain name
C.    Relative URL
D.    Deep URL

Answer: D

You received a text and a threatening voicemail from an angry customer who wants to immediately discuss the shortcomings of a recently released product. You are about to walk into a mandatory meeting with your top-level leadership team. Which of the following is your best course of action?

A.    Continue to send text messages to the customer hoping to smooth things over until you can call him
on the phone after your meeting.
B.    Request that the customer send his complaints by e-mail, knowing that any inappropriate communication
will be well documented.
C.    Do not respond to the customer.
D.    Skip the meeting and call the customer.

Answer: B

Which of the following is a security threat commonly associated with cloud-based services?

A.    Malware
B.    Phishing
C.    Hypervisor vulnerabilities
D.    Operating system vulnerabilities

Answer: C

Server-based networks typically contain centralized network resources, which are usually not available on peer-to-peer (P2P) networks. Which of the following examples describes a server based network?

A.    Three network clients connecting to a file server
B.    Downloading a file by using Bit Torrent technology
C.    Sharing one or more files to another computer via the Internet
D.    A client connecting to another computer over the Internet to share music

Answer: A

Marion has been hired by a small business to determine why its Web site does not attract users. As Marion interviews different members of the company, she learns that when the site was first created, the external Web developer did not produce any documents specifying the basic requirements for the site. As a result, the site did not have a defined purpose and was not designed for the company’s audience. Additionally, the site navigation did not make sense from a user’s point of view. Marion considers this information, then she recommends that the company create which document?

A.    Wireframe
B.    Storyboard
C.    Marketing slideshow
D.    Non-disclosure agreement

Answer: B

Andrea works as an Administrative Assistant for a small business that uses an SaaS service for accounting, sales orders and customer service information about the business’s customers. This product is similar to and its competitors. Andrea makes sure she saves accurate records about current projects and performs regular backups of the business data stored on the cloud-based service. Which of the following is the primary reason for this practice?

A.    If there is an interruption in Internet access, the service and records would not be accessible.
B.    There is a limit on the number of users who are allowed to access the cloud-based service at any
one time.
C.    Data stored online through the cloud-based service is more at risk to security breaches than if it were
stored locally.
D.    Andrea is overly cautious because it is well known that cloud-based services are highly secure, highly
reliable and always available.

Answer: A

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Virtualization software transforms the hardware resources of a physical computer to create a fully functional virtual computer that can run its own operating systems and applications. In addition to the CPU and RAM, which hardware resources are used by virtualization software?

A.    Hard disk and USB devices
B.    Hard disk and network devices
C.    Virtual hard disk and network devices
D.    Network devices and secondary storage devices

Answer: B

John is the network administrator for a small company. The company’s network equipment has become outdated, and John has been asked to recommend a plan to update the company’s infrastructure. John has read extensively about the many advantages of using cloud-based services. Which of the following is an advantage of cloud-based services that John could cite to support his recommendation?

A.    Unlimited service options and choices
B.    Higher security in a cloud-based environment
C.    Elimination of need for high-speed Internet connection
D.    Elimination of equipment purchase and maintenance

Answer: D

Cloud-computing enables mobile devices to provide users with access to a wide variety of applications and services. Which of the following is a disadvantage of mobile devices?

A.    Mobile devices cannot accommodate Web browsing.
B.    Mobile devices cannot easily be used for checking e-mail.
C.    Mobile devices cannot access software hosted on remote servers.
D.    Mobile devices cannot accommodate large database installations or applications.

Answer: D

You have recently purchased a new wireless router. You would like to configure a name for your wireless network so that you can easily identify it when scanning available wireless networks. Which term describes this wireless network device name?

A.    Default gateway
B.    Wireless access point (AP)
C.    Access Point Identifier (API)
D.    Service Set Identifier (SSID)

Answer: D

You are creating a style sheet to format the pages on your company’s Web site. One section will have a black background with white text. What is the hexadecimal reference you would use to specify the text color for this portion of the Web page?

A.    "white"
B.    #000000
D.    "255, 255, 255"

Answer: C

Which of the following statements about virtualization is true?

A.    Virtualization enables multiple physical computers to run off of a single virtualized server.
B.    In virtualization, you run multiple virtual machines, provided they all use the same operating system.
C.    In virtualization, the operating systems of the virtual machines should match the host operating system.
D.    Virtualization enables you to run multiple operating systems and applications on a single computer.

Answer: D

Which line of code instructs the browser to look for a directory named my site that begins one level higher than the page you are currently viewing?

A.    mysite/index.html
B.    /mysite/index.html
C.    . ./mysite/index.html

Answer: C

A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a CCI script. Which attribute of the form field elements organizes the user’s information into name=value pairs?

A.    Name
B.    Form
C.    Value
D.    Method

Answer: A

Which is the preferred approach to communicate important action items in an e-mail message to a co-worker?

A.    Write the action items using all capital letters.
B.    List the action items in a numbered or bulleted list for clarity.
C.    Include emoticons to ensure the recipient understands your humor.
D.    Describe all action items at length in a detailed paragraph in the middle of the message.

Answer: B

Digital signatures verify the integrity of the data, verify the identity of the sender, and:

A.    Provide data confidentiality.
B.    Enforce non-repudiation.
C.    Sign digital certificate requests.
D.    Create certificate requests.

Answer: B

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Which choice lists the HTML5 elements that define the document structure for a Web page?

A.    <header>, <footer>, <nay>, <main>, <mainimage>
B.    <header>, <footer>, <banner>, <nay>, <article>
C.    <header>, <footer>, <nay>, <main>, <article>
D.    <header>, <footer>, <nay>, <article>, <aside>

Answer: D

When developing a Web site, which of the following actions would be considered unethical?

A.    Borrowing music from another site with the owner’s written permission
B.    Creating new code that provides a look and feel similar to another site
C.    Linking your site to another site with permission
D.    Copying some code from another Web site

Answer: D

Ron has an older computer to which he frequently downloads and saves company files. He recently noticed that he was running low on disk space and decided to delete many old files that he no longer needed. He now notices that it takes a long time to open or save documents to his hard drive. Which maintenance task can help?

A.    Disk defragmentation
B.    chkdsk command
C.    fdisk command
D.    Disk cleanup

Answer: A

One of your co-workers calls you to ask if you sent her an e-mail message with an attachment. You recall that you sent several c-mails with attachments earlier that day. Which of the following is your best response to this question?

A.    Ask your co-worker to open the attachment and describe the contents.
B.    Ask your co-worker to read the e-mail message including the full name of the attachment and its extension.
C.    Ask your co-worker to forward the e-mail to you so you can open the attachment and check it.
D.    Ask your co-worker to forward the e-mail to your company’s management.

Answer: B

When a developer wants to center a paragraph of text, which code should she use?

A.    <p text-align="center">This is the text to center</p>
B.    <p "text-align: center"> This is the text to center</p>
C.    <p style="text-align: center"> This is the text to center</p>
D.    <p style: text-align="center"> This is the text to center</p>

Answer: C

Wireless networks are subject to more security issues than standard wired networks. Which wireless security protocol can prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the wireless network?

A.    WPA2
B.    RSA
C.    AES
D.    DES

Answer: A

Irena is reviewing several promotional product videos from her company’s marketing department before they are published on the company’s Web site. The videos are in RealMedia format, but they do not open in Irena’s Windows Media Player. What should Irena do in order to view the videos?

A.    Contact her company’s Technical Support department and schedule service for her computer.
B.    Convert the video files to the WMV format, because RealMedia files will not play in Windows
Media Player.
C.    Upload the videos to the Web server to be viewed through Windows Media Player because they
will not play from a local computer.
D.    Decompress the files before attempting to play them in Windows Media Player, because RealMedia
files are compressed for uploading/downloading.

Answer: B

Consider the following address:
http://www.ClWcertified .com/certifications/web_foundations/iba.php
Which part of the URL represents the server name on which this page resides?

A.    www
B.    .CIWcertified
C.    .CIWcertifed .com
D.    /certifications/

Answer: A

What is the distinguishing difference between a LAN and WAN?

A.    A LAN is a group of networked computers within a confined geographic area.
B.    A WAN is a group of networked computers within a confined geographic area.
C.    A LAN typically provides slower network connection speeds than a WAN.
D.    A WAN is commonly used for intra-office communication.

Answer: A

Lisa is traveling on company business. She has a company-issued smartphone with 4G access. Her hotel does not provide Internet access. What advantage does 4G provide to help her access the Internet?

A.    She can use a 4G mobile hotspot device with her phone to connect her laptop to Wi-Fi.
B.    She can use the 4G phone to establish a VPN connection into the company network.
C.    She can use the 4G phone to call and locate a public location that provides free Wi-Fl.
D.    She can use her 4G phone’s GPS to identify another hotel that provides in-room Internet access.

Answer: A

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You are using an e-mail client that you are unfamiliar with. You need to send an e-mail with an attachment but you do not see a feature labeled "attachment" anywhere on the client. What icon should you look for that is commonly used to invoke the e-mail attachment option?

A.    Lock
B.    Folder
C.    Checkmark
D.    Paperclip

Answer: D

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Which Web-based validation tool is used to validate HTML documents?


Answer: C

Emelia and Lola have created a new software application that allows messaging site subscribers to analyze the message statistics in order to more easily assess and interact with followers. They have decided to license this software according to the GNU GPL Version 3. What does this license allow them to do with their software?

A.    They can only sell this software through a not-for-profit company.
B.    They can sell this software, but only if they make the software code available on a public server.
C.    The software enters the public domain for free use and can be altered by other programmers, who
must then make their changes freely available as well.
D.    The software enters the public domain for free use, but any changes made in the future can be kept
secret, allowing them to profitably sell the modified software.

Answer: C

You are a computer technician supporting a small 15-computer Internet lab. The computers are regularly used to browse the Internet and download files. Users have recently complained that they receive error messages saying the hard disk is full or out of space. You suspect this is a result of a large amount of temporary Internet files. Which of the following is a way to easily delete all the temporary Internet files?

A.    Disk cleanup
B.    fdisk command
C.    chkdsk command
D.    Disk defragmentation

Answer: A

Which of the following is a legal and ethical practice?

A.    Copying someone else’s written work found on the Internet and presenting it as your own, as
long as it is for schoolwork.
B.    Trying shareware for free and paying for it only after you decide to keep using it.
C.    Downloading copyrighted artwork and using it as a background on your Web site.
D.    Downloading music and motion pictures as long as they are from a peer-to-peer network.

Answer: B

Which <1mg> tag attribute is required in order for HTML5 documents to validate without error?

A.    id
B.    alt
C.    name
D.    title

Answer: B

You are the technology coordinator for a small multi-national corporation with offices in Los Angeles, New York, Tokyo and London. You have been asked to coordinate a live and interactive meeting that will allow executives from each of the offices to meet virtually and share presentations.
What is the best way to achieve this desired goal?

A.    Podcast
B.    Webcast
C.    Conference call
D.    Web conference

Answer: D

Your customer scheduled a meeting to discuss a project you are managing. Early testing indicates that there are currently quality problems with some of the more complex features. The customer stated that quality and budget are his two main concerns: The project must be developed within budget and must be very high quality. When you asked the customer if he would be willing to extend the deadline to meet his objectives, he stated this was not possible. What adjustment to the project triangle components can you suggest to meet your customer’s needs?

A.    Suggest that the scope be limited to include only the most important features.
B.    Inform the customer that he must compromise one of the three elements of a project triangle:
quality, budget or schedule.
C.    Suggest that the customer hire temporary contractors.
D.    Suggest that the customer use a Gantt chart to add time to the project.

Answer: A

Karen is the Webmaster for her company. Management would like to make the company’s intra net site more effective by providing links to internal HR forms for all employees to access. These forms are currently stored on the company s file server and are updated quarterly. For security reasons, the Web server does not allow linking to the company s file server. How should Karen create these links?

A.    Upload the forms to the Web server and create local relative links to the files.
B.    Upload the forms to the Web server and create local absolute links to the files.
C.    Upload the forms to the Web server and create external relative links to the files.
D.    Upload the forms to the Web server and create external absolute links to the files.

Answer: A

The process of wire framing typically includes determining Web site goals plus:

A.    outlining project timelines and budget constraints, and identifying site stakeholders.
B.    outlining project timelines and budget constraints, and identifying audience requirements.
C.    outlining the development and marketing process, and identifying audience requirements.
D.    outlining the development process and site navigation, and identifying required technologies.

Answer: D

Disaster recovery planning is considered a best practice for all organizations. It is even more important when cloud-computing services are used. Which of the following should be included as part of a disaster recovery plan for companies that use cloud-based services?

A.    Company organizational chart
B.    Malware and anti-virus software updates
C.    Service-level agreement with a cloud-provider
D.    Inventory of services not dependent on the cloud provider

Answer: C

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31: Which term describes the management of simultaneous transactions to prevent conflicts?
C.Database control
D.Concurrency control
Correct Answers: D
32: Your enterprise is developing a database system that will contain highly sensitive data. Security of the data will take priority over database processing speed. Which database protection technique should be employed?
B.User views
D.Integrity controls
Correct Answers: C
33: Which subset of Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to limit access to a database or its data?
A.Data Definition Language
B.Data Control Language
C.Data Entity Language
D.Data Manipulation Language
Correct Answers: B
34: Consider the following SQL statement and the Orders relation shown in the exhibit:
How many records should be returned?
A.Two records
B.Three records
C.Four records
D.Five records
Correct Answers: C
35: Consider the Orders relation shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements would return all complete tuples for order dates in 2002, arranged by amount from lowest to highest?
FROM Orders
WHERE Order_Date LIKE _02
ORDER BY Amount;
B.SELECT (Order_Date, Amount)
FROM Orders
WHERE Order_Date LIKE %02
ORDER BY Amount;
FROM Orders
WHERE Order_Date LIKE _02
ORDER BY Order_No;
FROM Orders
WHERE Order_Date LIKE %02
ORDER BY Amount;
Correct Answers: D
36: Which type of relational integrity is violated if a primary key in a database has a null value?
A.Entity integrity
B.Domain integrity
C.Domain constraints
D.Referential integrity
Correct Answers: A
37: The database manager wants to give Rubio and Doe the ability to modify the Project Relation shown in the exhibit. A temporary employee named Temp needs to access the data in the database to generate reports. Which group of SQL statements will perform this task?
A.GRANT UPDATE ON Project TO Rubio, Doe;
WHERE Manager = ‘Rubio’;
WHERE Manager = ‘Doe’;
WHERE Manager = ‘Rubio’;
WHERE Manager = ‘Doe’;
Correct Answers: A
38: Consider the entity-relationship (ER) diagram shown in the exhibit. Which type of relationship between the two entities is shown?
Correct Answers: B
39: What is a relational database domain?
A.A group of attributes
B.A set of permissible tuple values
C.A collection of related data items
D.A set of permissible attribute values
Correct Answers: D
40: Consider the symbols shown in the exhibit. Which of the following correctly identifies these symbols when used in an entity-relationship (ER) diagram?
A.1 = attribute, 2 = entity, 3 = relationship
B.1 = entity, 2 = relationship, 3 = attribute
C.1 = relationship, 2 = entity, 3 = attribute
D.1 = relationship, 2 = attribute, 3 = entity
Correct Answers: C
Marcella is looking for a very unique product online. She has found one on the XYZ Company’s Web site, which is designed well and appears to be legitimate. As she navigates through the checkout process, she reaches the checkout page with this URL, which asks her to enter her credit card information: Why should Marcella cancel her online transaction instead of proceeding?

A.    Because the site uses 128-bit encryption, which is illegal for companies that are located overseas
B.    Because the link contains abbreviations and is not completely readable, so Marcella is unsure of
the server name
C.    Because the link does not use SSL/TLS encryption and therefore the information Marcella enters
would not be secure
D.    Because the link uses SSL/TLS encryption, which Marcella knows is not compatible with the browser
she is using

Answer: C

Skylar has been asked by the HR Department to create a Web page for the company’s intra net site that compares the company’s four different medical insurance plans. To accomplish this effectively in HTML5, Skylar should:

A.    use document structure tags to lay out the page and use a table to organize the medical insurance
plan information.
B.    use JavaScript to lay out the page and use a table within the page to organize the medical insurance
plan information.
C.    use tables to lay out the page and use the <pre..> tag inside the table to organize the medical insurance
plan information.
D.    use CSS to lay out the page and use the <pre> element to organize the medical insurance plan information.

Answer: A

You received an e-mail message on which several other individuals were copied. You want to respond to this message in a way that will include everyone who was copied on the original message. You can accomplish this by using which action?

A.    Reply
B.    Reply All
C.    Forward
D.    Send

Answer: B

A family member has just sent you an e-mail message that contains highly personal details about a family matter. The message was sent to your company e-mail address. The family member has requested that you respond with your ideas about how to resolve the situation. Which of the following is a reason for you to call your family member and discuss the matter over the phone instead?

A.    Because your employer has the right to read your e-mail
B.    Because e-mail is completely private but not personal enough
C.    Because it is illegal to use company e-mail for personal use
D.    Because an e-mail message about a personal family matter will violate netiquette guidelines

Answer: A

You want to enable wireless security on your Android device and your Linux system. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

A.    It enables MAC address filtering.
B.    It is easily compromised by hackers.
C.    It only supports 56-bit symmetric-key encryption.
D.    It is based on the outdated 802.lla wireless standard.

Answer: B

Aisha is preparing to give a presentation to management about the development of cloud computing services that her company is planning to implement. Which of the following might her managers mention as a possible objection or drawback to using cloud services for the company?

A.    Speed
B.    Cost
C.    Flexibility
D.    Scalability

Answer: A

Since the advent of HTML5, which choice accurately describes a difference between a mobile app and a mobile Web site?

A.    A mobile Web site is faster because it uses the mobile phone’s default browser.
B.    A mobile app is faster because it does not necessarily use the browser.
C.    A mobile Web site cannot create an immersive experience for users.
D.    A mobile app can be used on any operating system.

Answer: B

Three hardware devices need to communicate with the CPU simultaneously. Which of the following will each device need to issue?

A.    DMA request
B.    CON request
C.    Interrupt request (IRQ)
D.    Input/output request (I/O)

Answer: C

Marion has been hired by a popular national salon business to refresh its existing Web site and update it to valid HTML5 code. Money is not an issue, but time is. Marion is asked to complete the project within eight weeks. The site currently includes 10 pages and connects to a back-end database so that customers can sign in for a personalized experience. Marion suspects that most of the existing code will need to be replaced. Marion must ensure that she has plenty of time for the testing phase, so she needs to complete the planning phase, in which she selects the multimedia for the site, within the next couple days. Which strategy should Marion use in the planning phase?

A.    Take pictures of the salons herself.
B.    Purchase stock photos from online resources.
C.    Hire a photographer to take pictures of the salons.
D.    Edit existing images of the salons to update them.

Answer: B

Your child’s high school has created a wiki for its social science classes to support blogs and collaborative projects. Your child also contributes photos of extracurricular events to the school’s Facebook site. Which term collectively describes these types of Web usage?

A.    Mashup
B.    Web 1.0
C.    Web 2.0
D.    Folksonomy

Answer: C

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Sampson has used HTML5 to create a Web page that contains image-based navigation buttons. He would like to add text-based navigation to help ensure accessibility. Which of the following HTML5 elements should he use?

A.    <aside>
B.    <footer>
C.    <header>
D.    <article>

Answer: B

Michelle wants to search for a scuba regulator. She plans to use a keyword search engine. She does not want to see any results from the manufacturer named Scubapro. Which of the following search strings should she use?

A.    Regulators !Scubapro
B.    Regulators Scubapro
C.    Regulators <Scubapro
D.    Regulators >Scubapro

Answer: A

The Internet has enabled many new anti-social activities, such as online stalking, cyber bullying, and addiction to solitary online activities. Which choice is the most feasible way for schools and parents to reduce cyber bullying?

A.    Monitor, track and record all online activity conducted by students.
B.    Teach teens that the use of online communication is a freedom of expression.
C.    Prevent students from accessing the Internet while at school so that they learn good habits.
D.    Educate students about cyber-ethics and the consequences of questionable online behavior.

Answer: D

You are leading a team of new hires and need to train them on innovative strategies and technologies that will be used to develop an upcoming project. You send several e-mail messages with links to helpful resources. But you soon realize this is an inefficient way to organize and share this information. Which solution would provide a more efficient way to categorize and share this information?

A.    Social tagging
B.    Grid computing
C.    Ajax programming
D.    Collective intelligence

Answer: A

Consider the network configuration shown in the command prompt:

What does the Default Gateway identify?

A.    The file server on the network
B.    The local host on the network
C.    The computer on the network
D.    The router on the network

Answer: D

You are distributing a large video game file using BitTorrent. First, you upload the initial file and make it available via a central server called a tracker. Other users can then connect to the tracker and download the file. Each user who downloads the file makes it available to other users to download. The use of BitTorrent significantly reduces the original provider’s hardware and bandwidth resource costs. BitTorrent is an example of what type of network?

A.    Centralized network
B.    Client-server network
C.    Peer-to-peer (P2P) network
D.    Virtual private network (VPN)

Answer: C

You are configuring an e-mail client to connect to your e-mail account. Which of following is required to set up the e-mail account?

A.    An HTTP address
B.    An FTP address
C.    ADNS server address
D.    A POP3 address

Answer: D

Which type of attack is a form of social engineering in which an attacker attempts to steal personal or confidential information by sending e-mail that lures unsuspecting victims to log in to an authentic-looking but imposter Web site?

A.    Replay
B.    Phishing
C.    Spoofing
D.    Pharming

Answer: B

Katie developed her corporation’s intra net site using proprietary HTML language extensions based on the company’s current browser. The company has recently updated its systems to include the use of a new browser. Now the intra net site that Katie developed no longer renders its content consistently. What should Katie do to ensure that this site’s content renders consistently regardless of the browser used?

A.    Revise the site to include workarounds and hacks for the new browser.
B.    Revise the site’s markup language in only those areas that are not rendering properly.
C.    Update the site using a single language standard consistently, such as HTML5 or XHTML.
D.    Update the site using the proprietary language extensions required by the new browser’s rendering engine.

Answer: C

Gabby suspects that an attacker has gained control of her system. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for her to take?

A.    Shut down the computer.
B.    Enable strong encryption on all files on the hard disk.
C.    Run anti-virus software on all disks associated with this system.
D.    Unplug the computer network cable and/or disable the computer’s wireless NIC.

Answer: D

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