Tag: 200-101 Questions

QUESTION 21
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?

A.    The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B.    The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C.    R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D.    The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E.    The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes along a proper route to the destination node. A remote network is a network that can only be reached by sending the packet to another router. Remote networks are added to the routing table using either a dynamic routing protocol or by configuring static routes. Static routes are routes to networks that a network administrator manually configured.So R should have static route for the 192.168.1.128.

QUESTION 22
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?

A.    local DLCI on the subinterface
B.    remote DLCI on the main interface
C.    remote DCLI on the subinterface
D.    local DLCI on the main interface

Answer: A
Explanation:
To assign a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to a specified Frame Relay subinterface on the router or access server, or to assign a specific permanent virtual circuit (PVC) to a DLCI, or to apply a virtual template configuration for a PPP session, use the frame-relay interface-dlci interface configuration command

QUESTION 23
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    Administratively shut down the interface.
B.    Physically secure the interface.
C.    Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D.    Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E.    Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces -> A is not correct. We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is “virtual” -> B is not correct. To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the “access-class” command. The “access-group” command is only used to apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is not correct; E is correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password to prevent unauthorized login -> D is correct.

QUESTION 24
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A.    A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B.    Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C.    VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D.    Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E.    A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F.    VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Answer: BDE
well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct.
To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or
Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.
VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct.
Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or
sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct.
A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on
the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its
bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this
frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct.
We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

QUESTION 25
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?

A.    The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected
for more than five minutes.
B.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address
of the remote router.
C.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger
a call to the remote router.
D.    The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC
E.    The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:
ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit dataINACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to the remote router is not availableDELETED:
the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame Relay switch STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen.

QUESTION 26
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?

A.    show frame-relay pvc
B.    show frame-relay lmi
C.    show frame-relay map
D.    show frame relay end-to-end

Answer: C
Explanation:
This command is used to verify whether the frame-relay inverse-arp command resolved a remote IP address to a local DLCI. Use the show frame-relay map command to display the current map entries and information about the connections.

QUESTION 27
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?

A.    It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B.    IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C.    A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D.    The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility
over point-to-point configurations.

Answer: B
Explanation:
you do not have to assign a separate subnet per sub-interface .if you’re using a Class A network (10.x.x.x/8), you blow the whole network on a few connections (if you used VLSM, you could use a better mask, limit the addresses used). if you used 10.0.0.0/8, you would not be assigning the entire /8 to a single network. You would select a subnet mask for the network and then, you would have to use that mask with all subnets of the network. So if you chose a /24 mask, that would mean that you would have to use a /24 mask for even point-to-point links.

QUESTION 28
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)

A.    the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B.    the value of the local DLCI
C.    the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D.    the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E.    the IP address of the local router

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/wan/command/reference/wrffr4.html#wp1029343

QUESTION 29
Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

A.    RSA
B.    L2TP
C.    IPsec
D.    PPTP

Answer: C
Explanation:
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a technology protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and/or encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. IPsec also includes protocols for establishing mutual authentication between agents at the beginning of the session and negotiation of cryptographic keys to be used during the session.

QUESTION 30
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A.    Layer 2
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 4
D.    Layer 5

Answer: A
Explanation:
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a data link protocol commonly used in establishing a direct connection between two networking nodes. It can provide connection authentication, transmission encryption (using ECP, RFC 1968), and compression.

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QUESTION 11
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A.    2
B.    4
C.    16
D.    unlimited

Answer: B
Explanation:
4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routing table and perform load balancing amongst them. In order to configure this feature, you need to use the OSPF subcommand maximum-paths, i.e. maximum-paths 16.

QUESTION 12
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

A.    hop count
B.    administrative distance
C.    link bandwidth
D.    link delay
E.    link cost

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094195.shtml

QUESTION 13
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B.    the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C.    the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D.    the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E.    the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Link State routing protocols, such as OSPF and IS-IS, converge more quickly than their distance vector routing protocols such as RIPv1, RIPv2, EIGRP and so on, throught the use of flooding and triggered updates. In link state protocols, changes are flooded immediatedly and computed in parallel. Triggered updates improve convergence time by requiring routers to send an update message immediately upon learning of a route change. These updates are triggered by some event, such as a new link becoming available oor an existing link failing. The main drawbacks to link state routing protocols are the amount of CPU overhead involved in calculating route changes and memory resources that are required to store neighbor tables, route tables and a complete topology table.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24090&seqNum=4

QUESTION 14
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A.    Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B.    Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C.    Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D.    Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E.    An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F.    Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G.    Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Answer: BG
Explanation:
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24090&seqNum=6http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24090

QUESTION 15
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A.    ipv6 local
B.    ipv6 host
C.    ipv6 unicast-routing
D.    ipv6 neighbor

Answer: C
Explanation:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.Lowest Administrative distance will be choose first.EIGRP has 90 , RIP has 120 , OSPF has 110.
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
IGRP
OSPF
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP
Unknown*

QUESTION 16
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?

A.    the route learned through EIGRP
B.    the route learned through OSPF
C.    the route learned through RIP
D.    the route with the lowest metric
E.    all three routes with the router load balancing

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?

A.    It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the
routing table.
B.    It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C.    It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths
to the destination network.
D.    It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f07.shtml

QUESTION 18
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

A.    show ip ospf link-state
B.    show ip ospf lsa database
C.    show ip ospf neighbors
D.    show ip ospf database

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/iproute_ospf/command/reference/iro_osp3.html#wp1012173

QUESTION 19
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A.    90
B.    100
C.    110
D.    120

Answer: C
Explanation:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
IGRP
OSPF
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP
Unknown*

QUESTION 20
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:

interface fastethernet 0/4
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security

What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?

A.    A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4
simultaneously
B.    A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4
simultaneously
C.    Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D.    The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E.    The port is effectively shutdown

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12.2/20ewa/configuration/guide/port_sec.html

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QUESTION 1
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B.    RSTP defines new port roles.
C.    RSTP defines no new port states.
D.    RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E.    RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

QUESTION 2
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A.    learning
B.    listening
C.    discarding
D.    forwarding

Answer: C
Explanation:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

QUESTION 3
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A.    discarding
B.    listening
C.    learning
D.    forwarding
E.    disabled

Answer: AD
Explanation:
RSTP only has 3 port states that are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A.    RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B.    RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C.    RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D.    RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E.    RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F.    RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

QUESTION 5
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A.    physical
B.    data link
C.    network
D.    transport

Answer: B
Explanation:
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

QUESTION 6
What is one benefit of PVST+?

A.    PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B.    PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C.    PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D.    PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network. It means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic.

QUESTION 7
What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    It converges quickly.
B.    OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C.    It uses cost to determine the best route.
D.    It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E.    OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F.    OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Open_Shortest_Path_First http://www.sqa.org.uk/e-learning/NetInf203CD/page_10.htm

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?

A.    Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B.    RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C.    Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D.    EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.

Answer: C
Explanation:
RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF does not).To make discontiguous networks work, meaning you don’t want classful boundries to summarize, you need to turn off auto-summary. http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=174107&seqNum=3

QUESTION 9
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Bandwidth and Delay
C.    Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D.    Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Open_Shortest_Path_First

QUESTION 10
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)

A.    A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B.    Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C.    Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D.    A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E.    Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f07.shtml

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.