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QUESTION 71
Which statement describes the call recording operation on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express call agents that use Cisco IPPA?

A.    Recording is facilitated via desktop monitoring on supported IP phones.
B.    Automatic recording is supported.
C.    Only G.711 codec is supported.
D.    Only SPAN port monitoring is supported.
E.    Call recording is not supported on Cisco Unified CCX call agents that use Cisco IPPA.

Answer: D
Explanation:
There is no mechanism created as of now to record the call so we first span and record it from packet capture or from third party software.

QUESTION 72
Which protocol that is used between Cisco IM and Presence and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is responsible for the exchange of phone state presence information?

A.    AXL/SOAP
B.    CTI/QBE
C.    SIP/SIMPLE
D.    LDAP
E.    XMPP

Answer: C
Answer: C
Explanation:
To provide interoperability between communications systems, SIP is the protocol
leveraged. Enterprise Presence solutions need to provide for a uniform definition of the main communication services such as IM, voice, video, e-mail, web calendaring, and so on, while SIP delivers the necessary features.

QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. In this high-availability Cisco IM and Presence deployment with three subclusters, the first user is assigned to server 1A; the second user is assigned to server 2A; and the third user is assigned to server 3A. Assume that the Cisco IM and Presence is set to Active/Standby mode, to which server should the fourth user be assigned?

A.    1A
B.    3B
C.    1B
D.    2A
E.    3A

Answer: A
Explanation:
This deployment model provides the same level of redundancy and high availability as outlined in the “Balanced Redundant High-Availability Deployment” section in this chapter.
The only difference is that users are not deployed in a balanced fashion, but rather all reside on the primary server in the subcluster, and the backup server is there as a standby option if a node failure occurs.

QUESTION 74
Which two enterprise presence domains can federate with Cisco IM and Presence by using SIP? (Choose two.)

A.    AOL
B.    Microsoft OCS
C.    IBM Sametime
D.    Cisco WebEx Connect
E.    Google Talk
F.    Cisco Unified Presence 8.X Releases

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Microsoft Lync and OCS support presence services with sip as well as AOL so to sip is easy to troubleshoot and feasible for signaling that’s why cisco federate these with sip.

QUESTION 75
Which statement describes the external database requirement for the Cisco IM and Presence permanent group chat feature?

A.    All nodes in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster can share a physical external database.
B.    All nodes in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster can share a logical external database.
C.    Each node in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster must have its own physical external database.
D.    Each node in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster must have its own logical external database.
E.    An external database is not mandatory.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When you configure an external database entry on IM and Presence, you assign the external database to a node, or nodes, in your cluster as follows:
For the Compliance feature, you require at least one external database per cluster. Depending on your deployment requirements, you can also configure a separate external database per node.
For the Permanent Group Chat feature, you require a unique external database per node. Configure and assign a unique external database for each node in your cluster.
If you deploy both the Permanent Group Chat and Compliance features on an IM and Presence node, you can assign the same external database to both features.

QUESTION 76
Which external database software is required for the Cisco IM and Presence compliance feature?

A.    MySQL
B.    EnterpriseDB
C.    MSSQL
D.    SQLite
E.    PostgreSQL

Answer: E
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cups/8_0/english/install_upgrade/databa se/guide/Preparing_database_setup.html#wp1053954

QUESTION 77
Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence server to an external database for IM compliance?

A.    Cisco Presence Engine
B.    Cisco Serviceability Reporter
C.    Cisco Sync Agent
D.    Cisco XCP Connection Manager
E.    Cisco XCP Message Archiver

Answer: E
Explanation:
The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external Cisco-supported database.

QUESTION 78
Which two statements about the Cisco UC on UCS specs-based virtualization support model are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It has a configuration-based approach.
B.    It has a rule-based approach.
C.    It has less hardware flexibility compared to the third-party server specs-based support model.
D.    It has less hardware flexibility compared to the UC on UCS TRC support model.
E.    VMware vCenter is optional with this support model.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/UC_Virtualization_Supported_Hardware#UC_on_UCS_Teste d_Reference_Configurations

QUESTION 79
Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?

A.    required RAID configuration, when the TRC uses direct-attached storage
B.    configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping
C.    step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup
D.    configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software
E.    server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) by name only; part numbers
are not included because they change over time

Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the orderable part number level.
Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) – including battery backup cache or SuperCap – when the TRC uses DAS storage Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup. Design, installation and configuration of external hardware is not included in TRC definition, such as:
Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for VMware software are not included in TRC definition.
Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may also be leveraged for configuration details not included in the TRC definition.

QUESTION 80
Which capability is support by LLDP-MED but not by Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A.    LAN speed discovery
B.    network policy discovery
C.    location identification discovery
D.    power discovery
E.    trust extension

Answer: A
Explanation:
LLDP-MED supports both LAN speed and duplex discovery. Cisco Discovery Protocol supports duplex discovery only, but this limited support is not seen as a problem because if there is a speed mismatch, LLDP-MED and Cisco Discovery Protocol cannot be exchanged and thus cannot be used to detect the mismatch.


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QUESTION 61
Which message-handling behavior describes how Cisco Unity Connection Single Inbox works for Outlook users who do not have ViewMail installed?

A.    Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails without a WAV file attachment.
B.    Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as voice messages.
C.    Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails with a WAV file attachment.
D.    Cisco Unity Connection adds a Voice Outbox folder to the Outlook mailbox.
E.    Replies to Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are sent to Exchange as well as the Cisco Unity
Connection mailbox for the recipient.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco unity here acts as a imap server for yhe outlook user who don’t have view mail installed so user send their request as an imap client and unity will revert back with email and wav file attached to play.

QUESTION 62
When Single Inbox is configured, what will happen to an email message that was moved from any Outlook folder to the Voice Outbox folder?

A.    The email message will be delivered to Cisco Unity Connection.
B.    The email message will be kept in the Voice Outbox folder.
C.    The move will fail because the operation is not supported.
D.    The email message will be moved to the Deleted Items folder.
E.    The email message will be permanently deleted and will not be retrievable.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Voice messages queue for delivery in the Voice Outbox folder that is why it shows in Deleted Items folder.

QUESTION 63
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enabled, overrides all other greetings?

A.    holiday
B.    closed
C.    internal
D.    busy
E.    alternate

Answer: E
Explanation:
An Alternate greeting might be enabled to override the Standard Greeting during certain times. Because it is a personal greeting used for specific purpose.

QUESTION 64
Which three Cisco Unity Connection call handler greetings can be overridden by the internal greeting? (Choose three.)

A.    holiday
B.    alternate
C.    error
D.    busy
E.    closed
F.    standard

Answer: AEF
Explanation:
This greeting overrides the Standard, Closed, and Holiday greetings but only for internal callers or users defined in Cisco Unity Connection.Because the mentioned three greetings are defined for externals users.

QUESTION 65
Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler message is played when a caller enters a string of digits that is not found in the search scope?

A.    error
B.    closed
C.    internal
D.    busy
E.    alternate

Answer: A
Explanation:
As soon as unity find the unexpected behavior it prompt the error message to the user.

QUESTION 66
What is the default treatment of a message that is left in the opening greeting default call handler in Cisco Unity Connection?

A.    It will be sent to the mailbox for the Operator user.
B.    It will be sent to the Undeliverable Messages distribution list.
C.    It will be sent to the mailbox of the system administrator.
D.    It will be sent to the All Voicemail Users distribution list.
E.    It will be sent to the General Delivery Mailbox.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Default call handler is selected when we don’t assign any call handler to user and with this default call handler no specific user assigned so it don’t go to any specific mail box and goes to It will be sent to the Undeliverable Messages distribution list

QUESTION 67
Which statement about system broadcast messages in Cisco Unity Connection is true?

A.    The user can skip a system broadcast message to listen to new messages first.
B.    The user can forward a system broadcast message only if it has been played in its entirety.
C.    System broadcast messages are synchronized between Cisco Unity Connection and Exchange when
Single Inbox is configured.
D.    System broadcast messages do not trigger MWI.
E.    System broadcast messages are played immediately after users sign in and listen to message counts
for new and saved messages.

Answer: D
Explanation:
System broadcast messages are played immediately after users log on to Cisco Unity Connection by phone even before they hear message counts for new and saved messages. After logging on, users hear how many system broadcast messages they have and Connection begins playing them.

QUESTION 68
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?

A.    configuration data store
B.    repository data store
C.    agent data store
D.    historical data store
E.    script data store

Answer: B
Explanation:
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts, grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of the following file types The Unified CCX Server’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run- time when the Repository datastore is modified.

QUESTION 69
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express script media step can invoke a VXML application to retrieve and play prompts on-demand from an off-box location?

A.    Play Prompt step
B.    Voice Browser step
C.    Menu step
D.    Recording step
E.    Simple Recognition step

Answer: B
Explanation:
CRA Voice Browser is fully integrated with the CRA Engine. You can use scripts designed in the CRA Editor to extend VoiceXML applications by providing ICD (Integrated Contact Distribution) call control and resource management. For example, you can use VoiceXML to build a speech dialog as a front end to collect information from the caller. You can then pass this information to the CRA script, and when the agent receives the call, the information collected by VoiceXML will be available. You use the Voice Browser step in the Media palette of the CRA Editor to invoke a VoiceXML application. You can use the bundled voicebrowser.aef script as an example for creating scripts that invoke VoiceXML. (You can create custom scripts to execute other steps in addition to VoiceXML.)

QUESTION 70
Why has Cisco chosen to use the SCCP protocol in its IP telephony networks?

A.    It is a peer to peer protocol.
B.    It uses intelligent endpoints.
C.    It is an industry standard, open protocol.
D.    It enables the use of a rich set of features.

Answer: D


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QUESTION 51
To which QoS tool category does compressed RTP belong?

A.    classification
B.    marking
C.    link efficiency
D.    queuing
E.    prioritization

Answer: C
Explanation:
LLQ is a feature that provides a strict PQ to CBWFQ. LLQ enables a single strict PQ within CBWFQ at the class level. With LLQ, delay-sensitive data (in the PQ) is dequeued and sent first. In a VoIP with LLQ implementation, voice traffic is placed in the strict PQ.

QUESTION 52
How are queues serviced in Cisco IOS routers with the CBWFQ algorithm?

A.    first-in, first-out
B.    weighted round robin based on assigned bandwidth
C.    strict priority based on assigned priority
D.    last-in, first-out
E.    weighted round robin based on assigned priority

Answer: B
Explanation:
Class Based Weighted Fair queuing is an advanced form of WFQ that supports user defined traffic classes I.e. one can define traffic classes based on match criteria like protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A flow satisfying the match criteria for a class contributes the traffic for that particular defined class. A queue is allocated for each class, and the traffic belonging to that class is directed to the queue for that class.

QUESTION 53
In Cisco IOS routers that use low latency queuing, which algorithm is used to presort traffic going into the default queue?

A.    first-in, first-out
B.    last-in, first-out
C.    weighted round robin
D.    fair queuing
E.    random processing

Answer: D
Explanation:
WFQ is a flow-based queuing algorithm used in Quality of Service (QoS) that does two things simultaneously: It schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining bandwidth between high bandwidth flows. A stream of packets within a single session of a single application is known as flow or converstion. WFQ is a flow-based method that sends packets over the network and ensures packet transmission efficiency which is critical to the interactive traffic. This method automatically stabilizes network congestion between individual packet transmission flows.

QUESTION 54
Which statement describes the Cisco best practice recommendation about priority queue bandwidth allocation in relationship to the total link bandwidth when multiple strict priority LLQs are configured on the same router interface?

A.    Each LLQ should be limited to one-third of the link bandwidth capacity.
B.    The sum of all LLQs should be limited to two-thirds of the link bandwidth capacity.
C.    The sum of all LLQs should be limited to one-half of the link bandwidth capacity.
D.    The sum of all LLQs should be limited to one-third of the link bandwidth capacity.
E.    Cisco does not recommend more than one strict priority LLQ per interface.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Technical Marketing testing has shown a significant decrease in data application response times when Real-Time traffic exceeds one-third of a link’s bandwidth capacity. Cisco IOS Software allows the abstraction (and, thus, configuration) of multiple LLQs. Extensive testing and production-network customer deployments have shown that limiting the sum of all LLQs to 33 percent is a conservative and safe design ratio for merging real-time applications with data applications.

QUESTION 55
To which Cisco enterprise medianet application class does Cisco TelePresence belong?

A.    VoIP Telephony
B.    Real-time Interactive
C.    Multimedia Conferencing
D.    Broadcast Video
E.    Low Latency Data

Answer: B
Explanation:
Telepresence is used for video conferencing which can be done in Real-time so it is Real-time Interactive.

QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the serial interface link bandwidth is full T1. What is the maximum amount of bandwidth allowed for priority queuing of RTP packets with a DSCP value of EF?

A.    33% of 1.544 Mb/s
B.    5% of 1.544 Mb/s
C.    38% of 1.544 Mb/s
D.    62% of 1.544 Mb/s
E.    0% of 1.544 Mb/s

Answer: A
Explanation:
Since the use of the “priority” keyword was not used in this example 0% is the correct answer.

QUESTION 57
Which statement describes the key security service that is provided by the TLS Proxy function on a Cisco ASA appliance?

A.    It provides interworking to ensure that external IP phone traffic is encrypted, even if the rest of the
system is unencrypted.
B.    It only applies to encrypted voice calls where both parties utilize encryption.
C.    It manipulates the call signaling to ensure that all media is routed via the adaptive security appliance.
D.    It enables internal phones to communicate with external phones without encryption.
E.    It protects Cisco Unified Communications Manager from rogue soft clients and attackers on the data VLAN.

Answer: B
Explanation:
TLS Proxy is typically deployed in front of Cisco Unified Communications Manager and other unified communications application servers that utilize media encryption. TLS Proxy is not designed to provide remote-access encryption services for remote phones or client endpoints. Other solutions such as Cisco ASA Phone Proxy or IP Security/Secure Sockets Layer (IPsec/SSL) VPN services are more appropriate.TLS Proxy is not designed to provide a secure campus soft phone solution where the requirement is to provide secure data to phone VLAN traversal or for proxying connections to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

QUESTION 58
Which two statements describe security services that are provided by the Phone Proxy function on a Cisco ASA appliance? (Choose two.)

A.    It is supported only on phones that use SCCP.
B.    It is supported on an adaptive security appliance that runs in transparent mode.
C.    It provides interworking to ensure that the external IP phone traffic is encrypted, as long as the Cisco
Unified Communications Manager cluster runs in secure mode.
D.    It provides a proxy of phone signaling, with optional use of NAT, to hide the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager IP address from the public Internet.
E.    It proxies phone media so that internal phones are not directly exposed to the Internet.
F.    It supports IP phones that send phone proxy traffic through a VPN tunnel.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
TLS Proxy is typically deployed in front of Cisco Unified Communications Manager and other unified communications application servers that utilize media encryption. TLS Proxy is not designed to provide remote-access encryption services for remote phones or client endpoints. Other solutions such as Cisco ASA Phone Proxy or IP Security/Secure Sockets Layer (IPsec/SSL) VPN services are more appropriate. TLS Proxy is not designed to provide a secure campus soft phone solution where the requirement is to provide secure data to phone VLAN traversal or for proxying connections to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

QUESTION 59
Which entity signs a Cisco IP phone LSC?

A.    Godaddy.com Enrollment Server
B.    Manufacturer Certificate Authority
C.    Registration Authority
D.    Certificate Authority Proxy Function
E.    Cisco Certificate Authority

Answer: D
Explanation:
By default, LSC certificates are not installed on Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones that are required to use LSC certificates must be provisioned to allow TLS transactions before deployment in the field. LSC certificates can be provisioned to the Cisco IP phones through the Certificate Authority Proxy Function (CAPF) process. This process is completed using TLS and USB tokens coupled with the CTL client. Moreover, the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy feature can serve LSC certificates to the Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones will only work with the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy and will not establish secure connectivity with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

QUESTION 60
A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do to execute this change?

A.    Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in
Cisco Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B.    Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the
Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM.
C.    Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the
Synch User page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection.
D.    Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the
data locally on Cisco Unity Connection.
E.    Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately.

Answer: B
Explanation:
As we can see user are getting synch from call manager so we first have to change the details of user on call manager so that user will synch the changes from call manager.


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QUESTION 41
Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)

A.    The ephone hunt group is mandatory.
B.    Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable.
C.    Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones.
D.    Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones.
E.    Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones.
F.    The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.html

QUESTION 42
Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?

A.    sequential
B.    peer
C.    longest idle
D.    parallel
E.    overlay

Answer: D
Explanation:
Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group:
Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group
Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group
Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk
Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32

QUESTION 43
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?

A.    o
B.    c
C.    w
D.    x
E.    :

Answer: D
Explanation:
x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.

QUESTION 44
Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
B.    Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
C.    It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
D.    Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
E.    It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
F.    The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. From this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router, how many bearer channels are available to carry voice traffic?

A.    91
B.    92
C.    93
D.    94
E.    95

Answer: D
Explanation:
In NFAS one channel is used for signaling so according to this we will have 94 channel for with bearer capability.

QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command?

A.    MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
B.    TEI_ASSIGNED
C.    AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT
D.    STANDBY
E.    INITIALIZED

Answer: B
Explanation:
TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it?

A.    FXS
B.    E&M
C.    BRI
D.    FXO
E.    DID

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
The iLBC codec operates at 38 bytes per sample per 20-millisecond interval. What is its codec bit rate in kilobits per second?

A.    6.3
B.    13.3
C.    15.2
D.    16
E.    24

Answer: C
Explanation:
The internet Low Bit Rate Codec (iLBC) is designed for narrow band speech and results in a payload bit rate of 13.33 kbits per second for 30-millisecond (ms) frames and 15.20 kbits per second for 20 ms frames. When the codec operates at block lengths of 20 ms, it produces 304 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952. Similarly, for block lengths of 30 ms it produces 400 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952.The iLBC has built-in error correction functionality to provide better performance in networks with higher packet loss

QUESTION 49
Assume 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and a 40-millisecond voice payload, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for five VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link?

A.    87 kb/s
B.    134 kb/s
C.    102.6 kb/s
D.    77.6 kb/s
E.    71.3 kb/s

Answer: A
Explanation:
Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

QUESTION 50
Assume 20 bytes of voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for six VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?

A.    80.4 kb/s
B.    91.2 kb/s
C.    78.4 kb/s
D.    69.6 kb/s
E.    62.4 kb/s

Answer: D
Explanation:
Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.


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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Ephone 1 has three active calls. The first two calls were inbound calls, which the user put on hold to place a third call outbound. What will happen on ephone 1 when a fourth call arrives for extension 2001?

A.    The fourth call will be delivered to ephone 1 because it only received two inbound calls, one call less than
the busy-trigger-per-button setting.
B.    The fourth call will be delivered to ephone 1 because the huntstop channel setting is not yet saturated.
C.    The fourth call will be delivered to ephone 1 because it can handle up to five calls on each button.
D.    The fourth call will be held temporarily by the IOS Software until ephone 1 disconnects one of the active calls.
E.    The fourth call will not be delivered and the caller will hear a user busy tone.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Because on line maximum 4 calls can be placed when user put the call on hold is consume a channel and reach the maximum number of calls on line.

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. How many simultaneous inbound calls can be handled by these two IP phones?

A.    2
B.    4
C.    6
D.    9
E.    10

Answer: A
Explanation:
The line is configured as shared line so it will support maximum two calls at a time.

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. IP phone 1 has the MAC address 11111.1111.1111, while IP phone 2 has the MAC address 2222.2222.2222. The first two incoming calls were answered by IP phone 1, while the third incoming call was answered by IP phone 2. What will happen to the fourth incoming call?

A.    Both phones will ring, but only IP phone 2 can answer the call.
B.    Both phones will ring and either phone can answer the call.
C.    Only IP phone 2 will ring and can answer the call.
D.    Neither phone will ring and the call will be forwarded to 2100.
E.    Neither phone will ring and the call will be forwarded to 2200.

Answer: B
Explanation:
In shared line configuration phone share the same line so it is possible for any phone to answer the call.

QUESTION 34
Which statement describes the question mark wildcard character in a SIP trigger that is configured on Cisco Unity Express?

A.    It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9.
B.    It matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9.
C.    It matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
D.    It matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value.
E.    It matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9, when used within square brackets.

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Assume the IP address of Cisco Unity Express is 10.1.1.1. Which URL provides Cisco Unity Express end users with a GUI interface to access and manage their messages and mailbox settings?

A.    http://10.1.1.1/Web/Common/Login.do
B.    http://10.1.1.1/ciscopca
C.    http://10.1.1.1/user
D.    http://10.1.1.1/inbox
E.    http://10.1.1.1/

Answer: C
Explanation:
For user access cisco unity has predefined url and it is http://10.1.1.1/user

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer sent you this debug output, captured on a Cisco IOS router (router A), to troubleshoot a problem where all H.323 calls that originate from another Cisco IOS router (router B) are being dropped almost immediately after arriving at router A. What is the reason for these disconnected calls?

A.    Calls were unsuccessful because of internal, memory-related problems on router A.
B.    Calls were rejected because the called number was denied on a configured class of restriction list
on router A.
C.    Calls were rejected because the VoIP dial peer 1002 was not operational.
D.    Calls were unsuccessful because the router B IP address was not found in the trusted source IP
address list on router A.
E.    Calls were rejected by router A because it received an admission reject from its gatekeeper because
of toll fraud suspicion.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Trusted source IP address list on router is a list which secure the connectivity of router if it is enabled then we need to give the trusted ebtry for any route to reach.

QUESTION 37
Which type of mailbox on Cisco Unity Express can play a user greeting and disconnect the call, but cannot take or send messages?

A.    PIN-less mailbox
B.    announcement-only mailbox
C.    general delivery mailbox
D.    call-handling mailbox
E.    personal mailbox

Answer: B
Explanation:
Announcement-only mailbox are set for those user who only want the caller to listen the announcement and leave his message according to the announcement.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco IOS Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. What will happen to a call in queue that was not answered by any member of the hunt group after the maximum amount of time allowed in the call queue expires?

A.    The call will be forwarded to extension 2120.
B.    The call will be forwarded to extension 2220.
C.    The call will be forwarded to extension 2003.
D.    The call will be disconnected with user busy.
E.    The call will be forwarded to 2100.

Answer: B
Explanation:
As we can see in the configuration 2220 is configured as voice mail forwarding extension so the call will forward to voice mail.

QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco IOS Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. What will happen to a new call that enters the call queue when there are already two calls in queue?

A.    The call will be forwarded to extension 2120.
B.    The call will be forwarded to extension 2220.
C.    The call will be forwarded to extension 2003.
D.    The call will be disconnected with user busy.
E.    The call will be forwarded to 2100.

Answer: C
Explanation:
That is because queue over flow is forwaded to 2003 and maximum number of calls in queuq is configured as two.

QUESTION 40
When multiple greetings are enabled on Cisco Unity Express, which greeting will take the highest precedence?

A.    standard
B.    meeting
C.    busy
D.    closed
E.    internal

Answer: B
Explanation:
Meeting greeting has highest priority because it is set by user when he don’t want to take the call and notice the caller he is online.


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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

A.Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
B.Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
Manager
will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
C.As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
configuration on both IP phones.
D.As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
E.The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
service configuration on both IP phones.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

QUESTION 22
What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
B.It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
C.It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
D.It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
E.It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

QUESTION 23
Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

A.Location CAC
B.RSVP CAC
C.H.323 gatekeeper
D.intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
E.visiting cluster’s LBM hub

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

A.Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
B.Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
C.Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
D.Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
E.Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
F.Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

QUESTION 25
What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

A.1
B.up to 2
C.up to 3
D.up to 4
E.up to 5

Answer: E
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 26
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

A.null
B.none
C.directory URI
D.default
E.any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 27
Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

A.CCD advertising service
B.CCD requesting service
C.SAF forwarder
D.SAF enabled trunks
E.CCD registration service

Answer: B
Explanation:
SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

QUESTION 28
Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

A.Low
B.Medium
C.High
D.Secure
E.Flex

Answer: E
Explanation:
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

QUESTION 29
When DSP oversubscription occurs on a Cisco IOS router using DSP modules that are based on the C5510 chipset, what will happen when an analog phone connected to a FXS port goes off-hook?

A.A fast busy tone will be played.
B.A slow busy tone will be played.
C.A network busy tone will be played.
D.A dial tone will be played, but digits will not be processed.
E.No tone will be played.

Answer: E
Explanation:
When DSP oversubscription occurs for both analog ports and digital ports, except PRI and BRI. FXO signaling and application controlled endpoints are not supported. This feature does not apply to insufficient DSP credits due to mid-call codec changes (while a call is already established).

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. How many simultaneous outbound calls are possible with this Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration on these two phones?

A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
E.11

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ephone is configured as octo line so maximum call number is 8 and it will be devided between lines.


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QUESTION 11
Which two responses are examples of client error responses in SIP protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    302 Moved Temporarily
B.    404 Not Found
C.    503 Service Unavailable
D.    502 Bad Gateway
E.    604 Does Not Exist Anywhere
F.    408 Request Timeout

Answer: BF
Explanation:
Client Error (400 to 499)–Request contains bad syntax or cannot be fulfilled at this server. This class of 400 to 499 contains only error messages.

QUESTION 12
Which H.245 information is exchanged within H.225 messages in H.323 Fast Connect?

A.    Terminal Capability Set
B.    Open Logical Channel
C.    Master-Slave Determination
D.    Call Setup
E.    Call Progress

Answer: B
Explanation:
With the standard H.245 negotiation, the two endpoints need three round- trips before they agree on the parameters of the audio/video channels (1. master/slave voting, 2. terminal capability set exchange, and finally, 3. opening the logical channels). In certain situations and especially with high-latency network links, this can last too long and users will notice the delay.

QUESTION 13
Which two compression formats for high-definition video have technical content that is identical to H.264? (Choose two.)

A.    MPEG-4 Part 10
B.    MPEG-4 Part 14
C.    MPEG-2 Part 7
D.    AVC
E.    VC3
F.    VP8

Answer: AD
Explanation:
MPEG-4 Part 10, also known as MPEG-4 AVC (Advanced Video Coding), is actually defined in an identical pair of standards maintained by different organizations, together known as the Joint Video Team (JVT). While MPEG-4 Part 10 is a ISO/IEC standard, it was developed in cooperation with the ITU, an organization heavily involved in broadcast television standards. Since the ITU designation for the standard is H.264, you may see MPEG-4 Part 10 video referred to as either AVC or H.264. Both are valid, and refer to the same standard.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on an SCCP IP phone (extension 1001) to call another SCCP IP phone (extension 2003). Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Which user inputs are sent from the calling IP phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, in forms of SCCP messages, after the user pressed the Dial softkey? Note that the commas in answer choices below are logical separators, not part of the actual user input or SCCP messages.

A.    A separate SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for each of the following
user inputs: 2, 0, 0, 3.
B.    A separate SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for each of the following
user inputs: 2, 0, 1, <<, 0, 3.
C.    A single SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager to report that digits 2003
have been dialed.
D.    A single SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager to report that digits 201<<03
have been dialed.
E.    A separate SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for each of the following
user inputs: 2, 0, 1, <<, 2, 0, 0, 3.

Answer: C
Explanation:
After the user delete phone stop the digit by digit dialing and send it as a whole setup.

QUESTION 15
How are DTMF digits transported in RFC 2833?

A.    In the RTP stream with the named telephone events payload format.
B.    In the RTP stream with the regular audio payload format.
C.    In SIP NOTIFY messages.
D.    In SIP INFO messages.
E.    In SIP SUBSCRIBE messages.

Answer: A
Explanation:
DTMF digits and named telephone events are carried as part of the audio stream, and MUST use the same sequence number and time-stamp base as the regular audio channel to simplify the generation of audio waveforms at a gateway. The default clock frequency is 8,000 Hz, but the clock frequency can be redefined when assigning the dynamic payload type.

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which DTMF relay method is advertised when the originating SIP gateway sends an INVITE message with a Call-Info header shown?
 

A.    RFC 2833
B.    SIP INFO
C.    SIP NOTIFY
D.    SIP KPML
E.    In-band audio

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can develop user-specific applications that reside on your network entity and have the ability to subscribe for event services supported by the IMG. If the network entity wants the ability to detect an entered DTMF digit (only telephone event of “###” are currently supported) from the TDM-side of a call to the IP side of a call, the entity can subscribe to the IMG for these events and receive SIP NOTIFY events containing the digit event.

QUESTION 17
What is the maximum length of any numeric geographic area address in ITU recommendation E.164?

A.    15
B.    18
C.    21
D.    22
E.    25

Answer: A
Explanation:
E.164 defines a general format for international telephone numbers. Plan- conforming numbers are limited to a maximum of 15 digits. The presentation of numbers is usually prefixed with the character + (plus sign), indicating that the number includes the international country calling code (country code), and must typically be prefixed when dialing with the appropriate international call prefix, which is a trunk code to reach an international circuit from within the country of call origination.

QUESTION 18
According to ITU-T E.164 recommendations, which two fields in the National Significant Number code may be further subdivided? (Choose two.)

A.    Country Code
B.    National Destination Code
C.    Subscriber Number
D.    Regional Significant Number
E.    Local User Code
F.    National Numbering Plan

Answer: BC
Explanation:
A telephone number can have a maximum of 15 digits .The first part of the telephone number is the country code (one to three digits) .The second part is the national destination code (NDC). The last part is the subscriber number (SN). The NDC and SN together are collectively called the national (significant) number

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming that the calling SIP phone is not associated with any SIP dial rules, which statement about how digits are forwarded to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for further call processing is true?

A.    Each digit is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message KPML event, at the
time that the user enters the digit on the keypad.
B.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, or for the Dial softkey to be selected before
sending each digit to Cisco Unified Communications Manager as a separate KPML event in a SIP NOTIFY
message.
C.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, or for the Dial softkey to be selected before
sending all digits to Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message.
D.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire or for the Dial softkey to be selected before sending
the first digit in a SIP INVITE and the subsequent digits in SIP INFORMATION messages.
E.    The SIP IP phone will send all digits to Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message
as soon as the fourth digit is pressed.

Answer: A
Explanation:
KPML procedures use a SIP SUBSCRIBE message to register for DTMF digits. The digits themselves are delivered in NOTIFY messages containing an XML encoded body. And it is Out of Band DTMF

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP dial rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about how digits are forwarded to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for further call processing is true?
 

A.    As each digit is pressed on the SIP IP phone, it is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager in
a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML event.
B.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send each digit to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager as a separate KPML event in a SIP NOTIFY message.
C.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, or for the Dial softkey to be selected before
sending all digits to Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message.
D.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, or for the Dial softkey to be selected before
sending the first digit in a SIP INVITE and the subsequent digits in SIP INFORMATION messages.
E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.


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QUESTION 1
Which two SCCP call signaling messages are sent by an IP phone to Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    SoftKeyEvent
B.    OpenReceiveChannelAck
C.    StartMediaTransmission
D.    SelectSoftKeys
E.    CloseReceiveChannel
F.    StopTone

Answer: AB
Explanation:
This message indicates which soft key was pressed. Upon receipt of this mesage,CallManager invokesthe action associated with thepressed soft key. For example, if Hold was the pressed soft key,CallManager places the active call on user hold.In some trace files you might see a soft key number without the corresponding description. The following list defines each soft key number.

QUESTION 2
Which device is the initiator of a StationInit message in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SDI trace?

A.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B.    MGCP gateway
C.    Cisco Music on Hold server
D.    SCCP IP phone
E.    SIP Proxy Server

Answer: D
Explanation:
StationInit means that an inbound Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) message
from a Skinny station reached CallManager. A Skinny station is any endpoint that uses the Skinny protocol to communicate with CallManager

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. You received this debug output to troubleshoot a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway problem at a customer site.
Which statement about this endpoint on the Cisco MGCP gateway is true?

A.    This endpoint is on a T1 Controller 0/1/0.
B.    This endpoint is on an E1 Controller 0/1/0.
C.    This endpoint is on a T1 Controller 0/1/1.
D.    This endpoint is on an E1 Controller 0/1/2.
E.    This endpoint is on an T1 Controller 0/1/2.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. You received this debug output to troubleshoot a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway media-related problem at a customer site. What is the purpose of this message?

A.    The MGCP gateway is responding to an RQNT message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
B.    The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUEP message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
to poll the media capabilities on its endpoints.
C.    The MGCP gateway is responding to an AUCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
to poll the active calls on its endpoints.
D.    The MGCP gateway is responding to an MDCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
during a call setup.
E.    The MGCP gateway is responding to a DLCX message from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
during a call setup.

Answer: E

QUESTION 5
To which SIP response class do the SIP response codes 300 to 399 belong?

A.    Provisional
B.    Client Failure
C.    Server Failure
D.    Successful
E.    Redirection

Answer: E
Explanation:
Redirection — further action needs to be taken in order to complete the request.
That is what this class implies.

QUESTION 6
Which SIP request method enables reliability of SIP 1xx response types?

A.    ACK
B.    PRACK
C.    OPTIONS
D.    CANCEL
E.    REGISTER

Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to achieve reliability for provisional responses, we do nearly the same thing.
Reliable provisional responses are retransmitted by the TU with an exponential backoff.
Those retransmissions cease when a PRACK message is received.
The PRACK request plays the same role as ACK, but for provisional responses.
There is an important difference, however. PRACK is a normal SIP message, like BYE.

QUESTION 7
Which SIP response is considered a final response?

A.    183 Session in Progress
B.    199 Early Dialog Terminated
C.    200 OK
D.    180 Ringing
E.    100 Trying

Answer: C
Explanation:
Indicates the request was successful.Wheather other options state the request is still in progress or request is intiated.

QUESTION 8
Which two SDP content headers can be found in a SIP INVITE message? (Choose two.)

A.    Expires
B.    Contact
C.    Connection Info
D.    Media Attributes
E.    Allow
F.    CSeq

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Connection info is optional field in sdp wheather Media attributes decide the codec and media type for that call.

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. If this SIP call is initiated using early offer, which SIP message will UA#2 use to communicate its media capability to UA#1?

A.    INVITE
B.    180 Ringing
C.    200 OK
D.    ACK
E.    RTP Media

Answer: C
Explanation:
In Early offer, SIP Send SDP in the invite , the other node will send the SDP in the 200 message.

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. If this SIP call is initiated using delayed offer, which SIP message will UA#1 use to communicate its media capability to UA#2?

A.    INVITE
B.    180 Ringing
C.    200 OK
D.    ACK
E.    RTP Media

Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Delayed Offer process, the calling does not send its offer in the SIP INVITE Message. The callee sends the offer within the SDP fields of its answer (SIP 200 OK). The calling answers within the ACK message.


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QUESTION 396
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to provision CUCME with three 8841 phones.
However all phone fail to register.
Which two changes in the configuration would allow the phones to register? (Choose two)
 

A.    The registrar server command must be added under the voice register global configuration
B.    The IP address trusted authenticate command must be added under voice service voip
C.    The source-address command must be added under the voice register global configuration
D.    The local SIP proxy address must be configuration under the sip-ua configuration
E.    The registrar server command must be added under the sip section of voice service voip

Answer: CE

QUESTION 397
A collaboration engineer has been asked to implement secure real-time protocol between a Cisco Unified CM and SIP gateway. Which option is a consideration for this implementation?

A.    Only T.38 and Cisco fax protocol are supported
B.    SIP require the all the time be sent in GMT
C.    Call hold RE-INVITE is not supported
D.    SRTP is supported only in cisco IOS 15.x and higher

Answer: B

QUESTION 398
Refer to the exhibit. A collaboration engineer configures Cisco Unified CM location using G.711 and iLBC for each site. The bandwidth for each link is shown. Which two options represent the maximum concurrent number of calls supported from Grand Junction to Casper for each Codec?
(Choose two)
 

A.    20 G.711 calls
B.    18 G.711 calls
C.    36 iLBC calls
D.    42 iLBC calls
E.    11 G.711 calls
F.    51 iLBC calls

Answer: CE

QUESTION 399
A collaboration engineer is troubleshooting an MOH problem on a Cisco IOS SIP gateway. While searching through a debug ccsip message output, which three parameters in the SIP messages can be used to determine if the call was placed on hold? (Choose three)

A.    OPTIONS WITH 301 CALLHOLD
B.    INVITE WITH a=INACTIVE
C.    INVITE WITH a=SENDONLY
D.    OPTION WITH c=INACTIVE
E.    c=IN IP4 0.0.0.0
F.    BYE WITH A = CALLHOLD

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 400
Refer to the exhibit. A cisco collaboration engineer discovers that an instance of IOS media termination point (MTP) could not maintain stable registration with CUCM. Call manager traces is showing in the exhibit. What is the reason for the flapping registration?
 

A.    The CCM version on IOS configuration does not match the CUCM version.
B.    The IOS MTP is experiencing high CPU and is missing its keep-alive.
C.    A Firewall is blocking port 2000 intermittently between IOS Device and CUCM.
D.    Another IOS Media device is attempting to register with the same name.

Answer: D

QUESTION 401
A collaboration engineer is designing Cisco IM&P implementation to support instant messaging logging for compliance.
Which two external databases can be used to support that functionality? (Choose two.)

A.    Oracle database
B.    MySQL database
C.    Microsoft SQL database
D.    PostgreSQL database
E.    Informix SQL database

Answer: AD

QUESTION 402
Refer to the exhibit. A cisco collaboration engineer is troubleshooting a gateway and gatekeeper problem and sees this output from a debug command.
Which two configuration can cause this problem? (Choose two)
 

A.    The same zone prefix is configured in two different gatekeepers
B.    The same H323-ID is configured in two different gateways
C.    The same gw-type-prefix is configured in two different zone subnets IDs
D.    The same zone subnet ID is configured in two different gatekeepers
E.    The same E164-ID is configured in two different gateways

Answer: BE

QUESTION 403
The Cisco Unified Border Element is configured using high availability with the Hot Standby Routing Protocol. Which two pieces of information can be gathered about the calls traversing these border elements? (Choose two.)
 

A.    The total number of calls is 150.
B.    The number of non-native calls is 70.
C.    The number of native calls is 50.
D.    The number of calls preserved is 220.
E.    The total number of active calls is 100.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 404
Refer to the exhibit. Which two SIP packet handing behaviour will result with this cisco Unified Border Element (CUBE) configuration? (Choose two)
 

A.    Unsupported content/MIME pass-through
B.    SIP Refer is not support when received on this CUBE
C.    Privacy headers received on SIP message will be replaced with NON-privacy headers on this CUBE
D.    P-Preferred identities
E.    Mid-call codec changes

Answer: AE

QUESTION 405
A CUCM engineer has deployed Type B SIP Phones on a remote site and no SIP dial rules were deployed for these phones. How Will CUCM receive the DTMF after the phone goes off- hook and the button are pressed?

A.    Each digit will be received by CUCM in a SIP NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed
B.    The first digit will be received in a sip invite and subsequent digits will be received using NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed.
C.    Each digit bill be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed.
D.    All digits will be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed

Answer: A

QUESTION 406
The Video engineer wants to enable the LATM codec to allow video endpoint to communicate over audio With other IP devices Which two Characteristic should the voice engineer be aware of before enabling LATM on the Cisco Unified border element router? (Choose two)

A.    Dual tone Multi-frequency interworking with LATM codec is not supported
B.    Codec transcoding between LATM and other codecs is not supported
C.    SIP UPDATE message outlined in RFC3311 is not supported
D.    Box-to-Box High availability support feature is not supported
E.    Configure LATM under a voice class or dial peer is not supported
F.    Basic calls using flow-around or flow-through is not supported

Answer: AB


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QUESTION 349
An engineer notices that two Cisco utility Connection servers in a cluster are in split-brain mode. The engineer corrects a network issue that allows the two servers to communicate again.
Which two statements describe negative effects of this event? (Choose two)

A.    A user calling in to check their voicemail during the recovery may be informed that their messages are not available.
B.    Message waiting lights van become out of sync after the split-brain recovery.
Forcing the administrator to run an MWI Synchronization.
C.    The replication between the nodes becomes defunct, requiring the administrator to run utils cuc cluster activate to re-establish intracluster.
D.    A message left on the subscriber server during the outage may be lost during the cluster recovery.
E.    The replication between the nodes becomes defunct, requiring the administrator to run utils cuc cluster renegotiate to re-establish intracluster communication.
F.    The Unity Connection Database can become corrupted, causing the need to reinstall the subscriber server.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 350
Which two power saving parameters are available on a Cisco 9971 IP Phone only when it is connected to a Cisco switch with the EnergyWise feature enabled? (Choose two)

A.    Enable Power Save Plus
B.    Power Negotiation
C.    Phone On Time
D.    Display on Time
E.    LLDP Power Priority
F.    Day Display Not Active

Answer: AC

QUESTION 351
What is the maximum number of configurable speed dial entries for a Cisco Unified 9971 IP Phone?

A.    4
B.    199
C.    50
D.    3
E.    2

Answer: B

QUESTION 352
Which two softkeys can be offered on a Cisco IP Phone 7965, running SCCP firmware, when it is in Connected Conference state? (Choose two)
A.    EndCall
B.    Trnsfer
C.    Join
D.    RmLstC
E.    Select
F.    Confrn

Answer: AF

QUESTION 353
Which two SCCP call states support the CallBack softkey? (Choose two)

A.    On Hook
B.    Remote In Use
C.    Connected Transfer
D.    Ring In
E.    Off Hook
F.    Connected Conference

Answer: AC

QUESTION 354
Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Billing Application Server(s) for Call Detail Records?

A.    Cisco Unified Serviceability
B.    Service Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
C.    Enterprise Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
D.    Cisco Unified Reporting.
E.    Call Detail Records data collection internal is not a configurable parameter.

Answer: A

QUESTION 355
An engineer is configuring QoS for a 100 Mb WAN link. An ISP SLA was signed to support 70% of the link. Which QoS command allows the engineer to use 70% of the link while maintaining a steady flow?

A.    traffic-shape rate 100000000 70000000 70000000
B.    police cir 70000000 confirm-action transmit exceed-action drop
C.    police 70000000 13125000 confirm-action transmit exceed-action drop
D.    traffic-shape rate 70000000 8750000 8750000

Answer: D

QUESTION 356
A collaboration engineer is designing a phone VPN infrastructure and the company security team requires Active Directory for authentication. Which two phone VPN configurations meet this requirement? (Choose two)

A.    user ID and password authentication
B.    certificate-only authentication
C.    auto-network-detect authentication
D.    password-only authentication
E.    Cisco ASA Host ID check authentication
F.    Cisco Unified CM user ID and password authentication

Answer: CE

QUESTION 357
What is the default data collection interval for Call Detail Records on Cisco Unified CM?

A.    60 seconds
B.    1 seconds
C.    1440 seconds
D.    600 seconds
E.    3600 seconds

Answer: A

QUESTION 358
Which three softkeys can be offered on a Cisco IP Phone 7965, running SCCP firmware, when it is in Ring In state? (Choose three)

A.    iDivert
B.    DND
C.    Answer
D.    NewCall
E.    EndCall
F.    CallBack

Answer: ABC


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