Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (91-97) Download!

Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)

A.    Emergencies
B.    Alerts
C.    Critical
D.    Errors
E.    Warnings

Answer: ABC

Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B.    The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C.    A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.
D.    There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
E.    Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F.    A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.

Answer: CDF

A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)

A.    informational
B.    emergency
C.    warning
D.    critical
E.    debug
F.    error

Answer: BDF

In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?

A.    AVF
B.    AVG
C.    Active Router
D.    Standby Router

Answer: B

In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

A.    The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B.    All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C.    The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D.    The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.

Answer: A

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

A.    The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B.    The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C.    HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F.    HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

Answer: ABF

What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

A.    0000.5E00.01A3
B.    0007.B400.AE01
C.    0000.0C07.AC15
D.    0007.5E00.B301

Answer: C

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (81-90) Download!

What is the default Syslog facility level?

A.    local4
B.    local5
C.    local6
D.    local7

Answer: D

What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?

A.    service timestamps log datetime localtime
B.    service timestamps debug datetime msec
C.    service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D.    service timestamps log datetime msec

Answer: B

Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?

A.    Netflow
B.    WCCP
C.    IP SLA
D.    SNMP

Answer: D

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

A.    TRAP
C.    GET
D.    SET

Answer: AB

Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?

A.    Message Integrity
B.    Compression
C.    Authentication
D.    Encryption
E.    Error Detection

Answer: ACD

What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

A.    response
B.    get
C.    trap
D.    capture

Answer: C

What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

A.    HMAC-MD5
D.    community strings

Answer: D

Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)

A.    SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
B.    SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C.    SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D.    SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E.    SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F.    SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

Answer: ACE

What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?

A.    SNMP
B.    Netflow
C.    WCCP
D.    IP SLA

Answer: B

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (71-80) Download!

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    It requires the use of ARP.
B.    It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C.    It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D.    It routes over links rather than over networks.

Answer: BD

What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

A.    flow monitor
B.    flow record
C.    flow sampler
D.    flow exporter

Answer: A

What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)

A.    GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B.    GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C.    GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D.    GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E.    GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F.    GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

Answer: BDE

What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

A.    show ip flow export
B.    show ip flow top-talkers
C.    show ip cache flow
D.    show mls sampling
E.    show mls netflow ip

Answer: C

What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)

A.    To identify applications causing congestion.
B.    To authorize user network access.
C.    To report and alert link up / down instances.
D.    To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E.    To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F.    To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.

Answer: ADF

What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)

A.    CPU utilization
B.    where Netflow data will be sent
C.    number of devices exporting Netflow data
D.    port availability
E.    SNMP version
F.    WAN encapsulation

Answer: ABC

What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

A.    Network, Application & User Monitoring
B.    Network Planning
C.    Security Analysis
D.    Accounting/Billing

Answer: ACD

What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?

A.    IP address
B.    Interface name
C.    Port numbers
D.    L3 protocol type
E.    MAC address

Answer: ACD

Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)

A.    MIB
B.    SNMP Manager
C.    SysLog Server
D.    SNMP Agent
E.    Set

Answer: ABD

What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?

A.    Flash
B.    The logging buffer .RAM
C.    The console terminal
D.    Other terminals
E.    Syslog server

Answer: BCE

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (61-70) Download!

Hotspot Question




If required, what password should be configured on the DeepSouth router in the branch office to allow a connection to be established with the MidEast router?

A.    No password is required.
B.    Enable
C.    Secret
D.    Telnet
E.    Console

Answer: B

In the diagram, DeepSouth is connected to Dubai’s S1/2 interface and is configured as follows:
Interface Serial1/2
IP address
Encapsulalation PPP ; Encapsulation for this interface is PPP
Check out the following Cisco Link: 94333.shtml#configuringausernamedifferentfromtheroutersname
Here is a snipit of an example:
Network Diagram
If Router 1 initiates a call to Router 2, Router 2 would challenge Router 1, but Router 1 would not challenge Router 2. This occurs because the ppp authentication chap callin command is configured on Router 1. This is an example of a unidirectional authentication. In this setup, the ppp chap hostname alias-r1 command is configured on Router 1. Router 1 uses “alias-r1” as its hostname for CHAP authentication instead of “r1.” The Router 2 dialer map name should match Router 1’s ppp chap hostname; otherwise, two B channels are established, one for each direction.


Hotspot Question




What would be the destination Layer 2 address in the frame header for a frame that is being forwarded by Dubai to the host address of

A.    825
B.    230
C.    694
D.    387

Answer: C
According to command output is using the 694 dlci value.

Hotspot Question




Which connection uses the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?

A.    The serial connection to the NorthCoast branch office.
B.    The serial connection to the North branch office.
C.    The serial connection to the Southlands branch office.
D.    The serial connection to the Multinational Core.

Answer: B
Cisco default encapsulation is HDLC which is by default enabled on all cisco router. If we want to enable other encapsulation protocol(PPP,X.25 etc) we need to define in interface setting. But here except s1/1 all interface defined by other encapsulation protocol so we will assume default encapsulation running on s1/1 interface and s1/1 interface connected with North

Hotspot Question




A static map to the S-AMER location is required. Which command should be used to create this map?

A.    frame-relay map ip 825 broadcast
B.    frame-relay map ip 230 broadcast
C.    frame-relay map ip 694 broadcast
D.    frame-relay map ip 387 broadcast

Answer: B
frame-relay map ip 230 broadcast is S-AMER router ip address and its configure on 230 dlci value. Check “show frame-relay map ” output in the diagram.

Which command displays the CHAP authentication process as it occurs between two routers?

A.    debug chap authentication
B.    debug authentication
C.    debug chap ppp
D.    debug ppp authentication

Answer: D

A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?

A.    The VLAN database was not erased.
B.    The management VLAN is disabled.
C.    The running configuration should have been erased.
D.    The “mode” button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E.    The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.

Answer: A

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

A.    Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B.    Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C.    Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D.    There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E.    If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

Answer: AD

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    optional IPsec
B.    autoconfiguration
C.    no broadcasts
D.    complicated header
E.    plug-and-play
F.    checksums

Answer: BCE

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

A.    Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B.    Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C.    Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D.    Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Answer: D

Select the action that results from executing these commands.

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D.    Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E.    Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.

Answer: B

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

A.    There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B.    A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C.    Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D.    The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E.    Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Answer: BC

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (51-60) Download!

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

A.    Router(config)# router ospf 0
B.    Router(config)# router ospf 1
C.    Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D.    Router(config-router)# network 0
E.    Router(config-router)# network area 0
F.    Router(config-router)# network area 0

Answer: BE
In the router ospf
command, theranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the “network” statement, not a subnet mask. We also need to assgin an area to this process – E is correct.

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

A.    a backup route, stored in the routing table
B.    a primary route, stored in the routing table
C.    a backup route, stored in the topology table
D.    a primary route, stored in the topology table

Answer: C
Feasible successor is a route whose Advertised Distance is less than the Feasible Distance of the current best path. A feasible successor is a backup route, which is not stored in the routing table but stored in the topology table.

Drag and Drop Question
Drag each description on the left to the appropriate term on the right. Not all the descriptions are used.





Drag and Drop Question
Drag the term on the left to its definition on the right (Not all options are used.)




Poison reverse: A router learns from its neighbor that a route is down and the router sends an update back to the neighbor with an infinite metric to that routeLSA: The packets flooded when a topology change occurs, causing network routers to update their topological databases and recalculate routes
Split horizon: This prevents sending information about a routeback out the same interface that originally learned about the route holddown timer: For a given period, this causes the router to ignore any updates with poorer metrics to a lost network

Drag and Drop Question
Drat the description on the left to the routing protocol on the right. (Not all options are used.)




Drag and Drop Question
Drat the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms are used)




Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol, so it is vendor-specific. By default, EIGRP internal routes have an administrative distance value of 90. OSPF uses cost as its metric. By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on bandwidth with the formula cost= 10000 0000/bandwidth (in bps). OSPF elects a DR on each broadcast and nonbroadcast multiaccess networks (like Ethernet and Frame Relay environments, respectively). It doesn’t elect a DR on point-to-point link (like a serial WAN).

Hotspot Question


OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5
E.    6
F.    7

Answer: C
It already knows about its directly connected ones, only those not directly connected
are “Learned by OSPF”.
OSPF as a link state routing protocol (deals with LSAs rather than routes) does not auto summarize (doesn’t support “auto-summary”).So learned route by OSPF are followed

Hotspot Question



After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?

A.    No messages are exchanged.
B.    Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C.    The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D.    The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

Answer: B
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.

Hotspot Question



To allow or prevent load balancing to network, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)

A.    R2(config-if)#clock rate
B.    R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C.    R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D.    R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority
E.    R2(config-router)#distance ospf

Answer: BC

Hotspot Question



R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?


Answer: A
The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the following sequence:
+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. + If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen.
+ The router ID can be manually assigned
In this case, because a loopback interface is not configured so the highest active IP address is chosen as the router ID.

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (41-50) Download!

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1

A.    All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B.    Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C.    Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D.    The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E.    Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Answer: CD
we all know that The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID.
The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs. The process ID is local to the router, and two OSPF neighboring routers can have different OSPF process IDs. (This is not true of Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol [EIGRP], in which the routers need to be in the same autonomous system). Cisco IOS Software can run multiple OSPF processes on the same router, and the process ID merely distinguishes one process from the another. The process ID should be a positive integer.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?


A.     clip_image001[13]
B.     clip_image001[15]
C.     clip_image001[17]
D.     clip_image001[19]

Answer: B

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B.    802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C.    802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D.    802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E.    802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Answer: ACE
To be the feasible successor, the Advertised Distance (AD) of that route must be less than the Feasible Distance (FD) of the successor. From the output of the “show ip eigrp topology we learn that the FD of the successor is 41152000. Now we will mention about the answers, in the “Composite metric is (…/…)” statement the first parameter is the FD while the second parameter is the AD of that route. So we need to find out which route has the second parameter (AD) less than 41152000 -> only answer B satisfies this requirement with an AD of 128256.

Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)

A.    PPP
B.    WAP
C.    DSL
D.    L2TPv3
E.    Ethernet

Answer: AC
On each WAN connection, data is encapsulated into frames before itcrosses the WAN link. The following are typical WAN protocols:1. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC): The Cisco default encapsulation type onpoint-to-point connections, dedicated links, and circuit- switches connections.2. PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous andasynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols,including IP.3. Frame-relay: A successor to X.25. This protocol is an industry-standard, switchesdata-link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

A.    All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B.    All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C.    All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D.    All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Answer: D
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network.
Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.

What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

A.    They create split-horizon issues.
B.    They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C.    They emulate leased lines.
D.    They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E.    They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

Answer: BC

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

A.    CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B.    CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C.    CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D.    CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E.    CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F.    CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Answer: BC

Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?

A.    show frame-relay lmi
B.    show frame-relay map
C.    show frame-relay pvc
D.    show interfaces serial

Answer: B
map will show frame relay encapsulation (cisco or ietf)

What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

A.    to map a known IP address to a MAC address
B.    to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C.    to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D.    to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E.    to map a known IP address to a SPID
F.    to map a known SPID to a MAC address

Answer: D
Frame-Relay (a Layer 2 protocol) uses Inverse-Arp to map a know Layer 2 Address (DLCI) to a unknow Layer 3 Address.

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)

A.    hello packets
B.    SAP messages sent by other routers
C.    LSAs from other routers
D.    beacons received on point-to-point links
E.    routing tables received from other link-state routers
F.    TTL packets from designated routers

Answer: AC

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (31-40) Download!

The command show frame-relay map gives the following output:

Serial 0 (up): ip dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active

Which statements represent what is shown?(Choose three.)

A. represents the IP address of the remote router
B. represents the IP address of the local serial interface
C.    DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote serial interface
D.    DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address
E.    broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC
F.    active indicates that the ARP process is working

Answer: ADE

What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)

A.    Disable Inverse ARP.
B.    Create a full-mesh topology.
C.    Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D.    Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E.    Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.

Answer: BD
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) for which split horizon must be explicitly disabled. Certain protocols such as AppleTalk, transparent bridging, and Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX) cannot be supported on partially meshed networks because they require split horizon to be enabled (a packet received on an interface cannot be transmitted over the same interface, even if the packet is received and transmitted on different virtual circuits). Configuring Frame Relay subinterfaces ensures that a single physical interface is treated as multiple virtual interfaces. This capability allows you to overcome split horizon rules so packets received on one virtual interface can be forwarded to another virtual interface, even if they are configured on the same physical interface.

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)

A.    reduced cost
B.    better throughput
C.    broadband incompatibility
D.    increased security
E.    scalability
F.    reduced latency

Answer: ADE

Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?

A.    Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B.    Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C.    Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D.    Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap

Answer: B

What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 202 broadcast command?

A.    defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B.    defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C.    defines the DLCI on which packets from the IP address are received
D.    defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the IP address

Answer: D
frame-relay map ip 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link.
The command frame-relay map ip 202 broadcast means to mapping the distal IP 202 to the local DLCI . When the “broadcast” keyword is included, it turns Frame Relay network as a broadcast network, which can forward broadcasts.

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?

A.    HDLC
B.    PPP
C.    X.25
D.    Frame Relay

Answer: B
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) – HDLC is the default encapsulation type on point-to-point, dedicated links, and circuit-switched connections. It is used typically when communicating between two Cisco devices. It is a bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol.
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) – Provides router-to-router and host-to network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, such as IP, and IPX. PPP also has built in security mechanisms such as PAP and CHAP X.25/Link Access Procedure, Balanced (LAPB) – ITU-T standard that defines how connections between DTE and DCE are maintained for remote terminal access and computer communications in public data networks. X.25 specifies LAPB, a data line layer protocol. X.25 is a predecessor to Frame Relay.
Frame Relay – Industry standard, switched data link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits. It is a next-generation to X.25 that is streamlined to eliminate some of the time-consuming processes (such as error correction and flow control) that were employed in X.25.

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A.    IETF
B.    ANSI Annex D
C.    Q9333-A Annex A
D.    HDLC

Answer: A
Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: the Cisco encapsulation and the IETF Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command
Router(config-if)#encapsulation frame-relay ? on a WAN link.
Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively.
HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation type.

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A.    Corp-1
B.    Corp-2
C.    Corp-3
D.    Corp-4
E.    Branch-1
F.    Branch-2

Answer: DF
There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router.
Each segment will have a DR so we have 2 DRs.
To select which router will become DR they will compare their router-IDs. The router with highest (best) router-ID will become DR. The router-ID is chosen in the order below:
The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen.
In this question, the IP addresses of loopback interfaces are not mentioned so we will consider IP addresses of all active router’s physical interfaces. Router Corp-4 ( & Branch-2 ( have highest “active” IP addresses so they will become DRs.

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

A.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address
Main(config-if)# no shut
B.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

Answer: B
Cisco High-Level Data Link Controller (HDLC) is the Cisco proprietary protocol for sending data over synchronous serial links using HDLC. So HDLC runs only in Cisco router. PPP is not proprietary protocol it’s a open source every cisco router and non-cisco router understand the PPP protocol.So we need to configure the PPP protocol if connection is between cisco and non-cisco router.

Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

A.    NCP
B.    ISDN
C.    SLIP
D.    LCP
E.    DLCI

Answer: D
A protocol that establishes, configures, and tests data link connections used by the PPP Link Control Protocol offers PPP encapsulation different options, including the following:
Authentication – options includes PAP and CHAP
Compression – Data compression increases the throughput on a network link, by reducing the amount of data that must be transmitted. Error Detection -Quality and Magic numbers are used by PPP to ensure a reliable, loop-free data link.
Multilink – Supported in IOS 11.1 and later, multilink is supported on PPP links between Cisco routers. This splits the load for PPP over two or more parallel circuits and is called a bundle.

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (21-30) Download!

A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?

A.    The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B.    The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C.    R1 has no route to the network.
D.    The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E.    The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Answer: C
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes along a proper route to the destination node. A remote network is a network that can only be reached by sending the packet to another router. Remote networks are added to the routing table using either a dynamic routing protocol or by configuring static routes. Static routes are routes to networks that a network administrator manually configured.So R should have static route for the

What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?

A.    local DLCI on the subinterface
B.    remote DLCI on the main interface
C.    remote DCLI on the subinterface
D.    local DLCI on the main interface

Answer: A
To assign a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to a specified Frame Relay subinterface on the router or access server, or to assign a specific permanent virtual circuit (PVC) to a DLCI, or to apply a virtual template configuration for a PPP session, use the frame-relay interface-dlci interface configuration command

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    Administratively shut down the interface.
B.    Physically secure the interface.
C.    Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D.    Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E.    Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Answer: DE
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces -> A is not correct. We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is “virtual” -> B is not correct. To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the “access-class” command. The “access-group” command is only used to apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is not correct; E is correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password to prevent unauthorized login -> D is correct.

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A.    A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B.    Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C.    VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D.    Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E.    A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F.    VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Answer: BDE
well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct.
To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or
Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.
VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct.
Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or
sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use for VLAN 1, for VLAN 2 -> D is correct.
A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on
the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its
bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this
frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct.
We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?

A.    The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected
for more than five minutes.
B.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address
of the remote router.
C.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger
a call to the remote router.
D.    The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC
E.    The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Answer: D
The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:
ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit dataINACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to the remote router is not availableDELETED:
the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame Relay switch STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen.

What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?

A.    show frame-relay pvc
B.    show frame-relay lmi
C.    show frame-relay map
D.    show frame relay end-to-end

Answer: C
This command is used to verify whether the frame-relay inverse-arp command resolved a remote IP address to a local DLCI. Use the show frame-relay map command to display the current map entries and information about the connections.

What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?

A.    It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B.    IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C.    A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D.    The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility
over point-to-point configurations.

Answer: B
you do not have to assign a separate subnet per sub-interface .if you’re using a Class A network (10.x.x.x/8), you blow the whole network on a few connections (if you used VLSM, you could use a better mask, limit the addresses used). if you used, you would not be assigning the entire /8 to a single network. You would select a subnet mask for the network and then, you would have to use that mask with all subnets of the network. So if you chose a /24 mask, that would mean that you would have to use a /24 mask for even point-to-point links.

Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)

A.    the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B.    the value of the local DLCI
C.    the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D.    the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E.    the IP address of the local router

Answer: BD

Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

A.    RSA
B.    L2TP
C.    IPsec
D.    PPTP

Answer: C
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a technology protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and/or encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. IPsec also includes protocols for establishing mutual authentication between agents at the beginning of the session and negotiation of cryptographic keys to be used during the session.

At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A.    Layer 2
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 4
D.    Layer 5

Answer: A
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a data link protocol commonly used in establishing a direct connection between two networking nodes. It can provide connection authentication, transmission encryption (using ECP, RFC 1968), and compression.

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (11-20) Download!

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A.    2
B.    4
C.    16
D.    unlimited

Answer: B
4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routing table and perform load balancing amongst them. In order to configure this feature, you need to use the OSPF subcommand maximum-paths, i.e. maximum-paths 16.

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

A.    hop count
B.    administrative distance
C.    link bandwidth
D.    link delay
E.    link cost

Answer: B

What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B.    the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C.    the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D.    the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E.    the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

Answer: BD
Link State routing protocols, such as OSPF and IS-IS, converge more quickly than their distance vector routing protocols such as RIPv1, RIPv2, EIGRP and so on, throught the use of flooding and triggered updates. In link state protocols, changes are flooded immediatedly and computed in parallel. Triggered updates improve convergence time by requiring routers to send an update message immediately upon learning of a route change. These updates are triggered by some event, such as a new link becoming available oor an existing link failing. The main drawbacks to link state routing protocols are the amount of CPU overhead involved in calculating route changes and memory resources that are required to store neighbor tables, route tables and a complete topology table.

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A.    Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B.    Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C.    Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D.    Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E.    An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F.    Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G.    Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Answer: BG

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A.    ipv6 local
B.    ipv6 host
C.    ipv6 unicast-routing
D.    ipv6 neighbor

Answer: C
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.Lowest Administrative distance will be choose first.EIGRP has 90 , RIP has 120 , OSPF has 110.
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP

A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?

A.    the route learned through EIGRP
B.    the route learned through OSPF
C.    the route learned through RIP
D.    the route with the lowest metric
E.    all three routes with the router load balancing

Answer: A

What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?

A.    It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the
routing table.
B.    It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C.    It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths
to the destination network.
D.    It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: C

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

A.    show ip ospf link-state
B.    show ip ospf lsa database
C.    show ip ospf neighbors
D.    show ip ospf database

Answer: D

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A.    90
B.    100
C.    110
D.    120

Answer: C
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP

The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:

interface fastethernet 0/4
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security

What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?

A.    A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4
B.    A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4
C.    Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D.    The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E.    The port is effectively shutdown

Answer: BD

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.


Free 2014 Cisco 200-101 Dump (1-10) Download!

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B.    RSTP defines new port roles.
C.    RSTP defines no new port states.
D.    RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E.    RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Answer: BE

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A.    learning
B.    listening
C.    discarding
D.    forwarding

Answer: C
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A.    discarding
B.    listening
C.    learning
D.    forwarding
E.    disabled

Answer: AD
RSTP only has 3 port states that are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A.    RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B.    RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C.    RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D.    RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E.    RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F.    RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer: ABD

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A.    physical
B.    data link
C.    network
D.    transport

Answer: B
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2.

What is one benefit of PVST+?

A.    PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B.    PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C.    PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D.    PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Answer: C
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network. It means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic.

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    It converges quickly.
B.    OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C.    It uses cost to determine the best route.
D.    It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E.    OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F.    OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

Answer: ACF

Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?

A.    Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B.    RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C.    Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D.    EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.

Answer: C
RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF does not).To make discontiguous networks work, meaning you don’t want classful boundries to summarize, you need to turn off auto-summary.

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Bandwidth and Delay
C.    Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D.    Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Answer: A

Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)

A.    A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B.    Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C.    Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D.    A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E.    Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Answer: AD

If you want to pass the Cisco 200-101 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 200-101 Dumpfull version.